In 2001, the United Nations introduced what goals as part of then-UN secretary general Kofi Annan's Road Map toward development?
The MDGs were intended to be achieved by 2015, and progress toward these goals was monitored and reported on by the UN. The MDGs have since been replaced by the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs),
What is development?In 2001, the United Nations introduced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) as part of then-UN Secretary General Kofi Annan's Road Map toward development.
The MDGs were a set of eight goals aimed at reducing poverty, hunger, and disease and promoting education, gender equality, and environmental sustainability. The specific goals were:
Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Achieve universal primary education
Promote gender equality and empower women
Reduce child mortality
Improve maternal health
Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
Ensure environmental sustainability
Develop a global partnership for development
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Failure to practice according to legal and ethical standards can lead to _____.
default
liability
isolation
delisting
Answer: liability
Explanation:
Failure to practice according to legal and ethical standards can lead to liability.
Liability is where the other party as responsibility for injuries a patient may face due to their negligence. This means, the health care provider will be legally responsible for their mistakes.
What is meant by the “autonomy of patients”?
Autonomy means that medical support staff have no say in developing medical solutions.
Autonomy means that a doctor has the right to make choices for patients.
Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.
Autonomy means that a patient must carry out the doctor's instructions without deviation.
The correct answer to your question is C) Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.
Autonomy is where a patient is capable of making his or her own decision. In the medical field, bodily autonomy is extremely important in making decisions that might affect the welfare of a patient. The only time autonomy may be restricted from a patient is when the patient is incapable of making a decision on their own. If this were to happen, a power of attorney will leave family members capable of medical decisions from that point forward.
Which describes a warm up protocol
A common warm-up protocol typically includes light cardio activity followed by active/static stretching and dynamic stretching.
What is warm-up protocolA warm-up protocol is a series of exercises or activities that are designed to prepare the body for physical activity or exercise. The goal of a warm-up protocol is to increase blood flow to the muscles, raise the body temperature, and prepare the muscles, joints, and nervous system for the upcoming activity.
A typical warm-up protocol may include light cardiovascular exercise such as jogging or jumping jacks, followed by dynamic stretching exercises that involve moving the muscles through a range of motion.
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6. Which typically occurs first in the birthing process?
The baby is pushed out of the uterus.
The mother begins producing breast milk.
The doctor cuts the umbilical cord.
The placenta is pushed out of the uterus.
Select THREE ways that the body reacts to low blood sugar to maintain homeostasis.
The heart beat begins to increase.
The repiration rate decreases.
The pancreas begins to shut down.
The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.
The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.
The answers to your questions are:
- The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
- The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.
- The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.
When the body has low blood sugar, you will start to feel extremely bad as your body goes into fight or flight mode. Insulin is what is used to break down the sugar in your body and when your sugar levels are dangerously low, the pancreas starts producing glucagon. This is what causes you to start feeling hungry as your body is warning you to increase your blood sugar level.
The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
explain the following
1 Preservation is a means of saving food for future use.
2 preserved food have a definite keeping time.
pls answer, today is the deadline
Answer: 1. Preservation refers to the process of treating food in a way that helps to maintain its quality, nutritional value, and safety over a prolonged period. The primary objective of preservation is to extend the shelf life of food so that it can be stored and consumed at a later time. There are various methods of food preservation, such as drying, smoking, salting, canning, and freezing, that are used to prevent spoilage by bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms.
2. Preserved food has a definite keeping time because the preservation process does not completely stop the chemical reactions that can lead to food spoilage. While preserving food can slow down the rate of spoilage, it does not completely stop it. As such, most preserved foods have a shelf life that is determined by the method of preservation used and the storage conditions. For instance, canned foods can typically be stored for several years, while dried foods and smoked meats have a shorter shelf life of a few months to a year. It is essential to follow the storage instructions provided for each type of preserved food to ensure that they are safe to eat and maintain their quality over time.
Drag each tile to the correct box.
Put the jobs mentioned below in order from the highest to lowest level of education of the professional support service personnel.
Olga has a master's degree in physical
therapy,
but is not licensed yet. She creates
therapeutic
plans that her supervisor, a licensed
physical
therapist checks before administrating
them.
Jennifer is a student of physical therapy.
She works in a school part time under the
supervision of a licensed physical
therapist.
Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.
Who is physical therapist?A physical therapist, also referred to as a physiotherapist, is a trained healthcare professional with a license who focuses on musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, and cardiovascular disorders. The patients that physical therapists treat are of all ages.
The following positions are listed in order of professional support service personnel's highest to lowest level of education:
Olga, a physical therapist with a master's degree
Physical therapy student Jennifer works part-time under a certified physical therapist's supervision.
Olga has already finished a master's degree in physical therapy, which is a higher level of study, whilst Jennifer is pursuing a degree in the discipline. Olga is also in charge of developing the treatment strategies, and Jennifer is working under the guidance of a certified physical therapist.
As a result, Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.
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Course administration
Course administration
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Competencies
All of the following are characteristics of x-rays except:
Select one:
CA. cause fluorescence.
O B. long wavelengths.
O C. cause ionization.
O D. invisible form of radiant energy.
Explanation:
The answer to question 2 is B. long wavelengths. All of the other options are characteristics of x-rays: they cause fluorescence, cause ionization, and are an invisible form of radiant energy.
Improved quality is equal to increased productivity and lower cost, why?
Answer:
Improved quality is equal to increased productivity and lower cost because when products or services are of higher quality, there are fewer defects or errors which lead to less time and resources spent on correcting those defects. This increases productivity as workers can focus on producing more and better products rather than fixing mistakes.
What picture comes to your mind when you think of that concept? (3 points)
Answer:
Please provide the concept so that people may be able to answer your question.
Explanation:
7)
At your acute care organization, pressure injury risk assessment facility protocols stipulate the frequency of pressure injury risk assessment and reassessment. Assume that your hospital protocols follow IHI recommendations and reflects common practice at most hospitals. Following protocol, you should:
A. Assess for pressure injury risk on admission and perform skin assessments daily
B. Reassess pressure injury risk weekly
C. Perform a daily skin assessment and a risk assessment if warranted
D. Perform a skin assessment every shift, for every patient
Answer:
A. Assess for pressure injury risk on admission and perform skin assessments daily.
Identify two (2) factors (physical or environmental) that could have contributed to Mrs Duncan fall and explain these factors in relation to underlying pathophysiology. Support your points with relevant literature.
The majority all result of a combination of acute mediation risks factors that increase the chance to fall and falling factors. Predisposing risk factors old age, dementia, psychiatric medications, and specific shoes.
What does an injury's pathophysiology entail?Infection, trauma, or ischemia-reperfusion injury are recognised as the three primary effectors in the pathophysiology for acute sickness and injury. The systemic inflammation reaction syndrome (SIRS), which is a widespread response to the morbid event, can be produced by any one of them acting alone or in conjunction with the other two.
What is the pathophysiological mechanism underlying a pathological fracture?Alterations in skeletal biomechanics as a result of pathologic bone cause pathologic fractures, which can be caused by original malignant tumors, benign lesions, metastases, or underlying metabolic problems.
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1. Thinking Critically: Read at least two opposite sources and write at least 150
words on the science and ethics of cochlear implants. Evaluate the impact of
the contention that deafness is a cultural reality to be honored, not
manipulated. What would you do if you faced with deafness for yourself or a
child under your care? (150+ words)
Cochlear implants are electronic devices that are surgically implanted into the inner ear to provide a sense of sound to people with severe hearing loss or deafness.
Which science is behind cochlear implants?The science behind cochlear implants is well-established, with studies showing that they can improve hearing and speech perception in the majority of users.
However, the ethics of cochlear implants is a contentious issue, with some members of the Deaf community viewing deafness as a cultural identity rather than a disability. They argue that deafness should be respected as a unique way of experiencing the world and that efforts to "cure" it through cochlear implants are a form of cultural erasure.
On the other hand, proponents of cochlear implants argue that they are a valuable tool for improving the quality of life of people with hearing loss, particularly children who may face social and educational challenges due to their deafness.
If faced with deafness for myself or a child under my care, I would carefully consider all options, including cochlear implants, sign language, and other forms of assistive technology. Ultimately, the decision would depend on individual circumstances and preferences, and would need to take into account both the medical and cultural aspects of deafness.
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When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc
process.
When coding a method, it is not advised to work directly from the inc process. Thus, this claim is untrue.
Why is it contraindicated to execute procedure coding right from the inc process?The surgical incision, or the inc process, is just one part of the surgery and does not contain enough details to for correct coding of the complete procedure. To identify the precise operations carried out and the methods employed, it is crucial to check the whole medical record, including the operating report, while performing procedure coding. To guarantee correct and comprehensive coding, the coder should also refer to any appropriate coding rules and guidelines. Coding directly from the inc process could result in improper coding, which might therefore lead to inaccurate billing.
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When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc process. True or false?
What is The purpose of different health care insurances?
Answer:
The purpose of different health care insurances is to help individuals and families pay for their medical expenses, including doctor visits, hospital stays, prescription medications, and other health-related services.
There are several types of health care insurances available, each with its own purpose and benefits.
Private health insurance: This type of insurance is purchased by individuals or provided by employers. It can cover a wide range of medical services and may have different coverage levels, premiums, and deductibles.
Medicare: This is a federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease. It has different parts, including Part A (hospital insurance), Part B (medical insurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage), and Part D (prescription drug coverage).
Medicaid: This is a joint federal and state program that provides health insurance to people with low income and limited resources. It covers a wide range of medical services, including doctor visits, hospital stays, and prescription medications.
Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP): This is a federal-state partnership that provides health insurance to children in families who earn too much to qualify for Medicaid but cannot afford private health insurance.
Military health care: This is health care coverage provided to active duty service members, veterans, and their families through different programs, including TRICARE.
Overall, the purpose of health care insurance is to provide financial protection and access to medical services for individuals and families. Different types of health care insurances can cater to different needs and circumstances, ensuring that people have options to choose from to suit their health care needs and budget.
Which of these is the correct breakdown and translation of the medical term percutaneous?
Oper (inside) + cutane (nail) + ous (condition) = condition inside the nail
Oper (beneath) + cutane (skin) + ous (inflammation) = inflammation beneath the skin
Oper (through) + cutane (nail) + ous (pertaining to) = pertaining to through the nail
Oper (through) + cutane (skin) + ous (pertaining to) = pertaining to through the skin
Oper (beneath) + cutane (nail)+ ous (condition)= condition beneath the nail
The definition of percutaneous in medical terminology. (per-kyoo-TAY-nee-us) A medication applied topically or as an injection that passes through the skin.
What does the term "percutaneous surgery" mean?Percutaneous denotes a route through the skin. A pathway from the skin just on back to a kidney is made possible by the surgery. The surgeon locates and removes kidney stones using specialised tools that are inserted through a small catheter in your back.
What is the medical term's word root?A medical term's root or stem is typically taken from a Greek and Latin word or verb. The fundamental meaning of the phrase is expressed by this root. Yet, frequently a prefix (at the start of the phrase) or a suffix will be added to change that meaning (at the end of the word).
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For an anesthesiologist
I. JOB DESCRIPTION
• Describe the care/service provided by the healthcare professional
• Describe the limits of authority and responsibility - legislated “scope of practice” for
this health care career
• Describe the “Code of Ethics” for this health care occupation
II. EDUCATION /REGISTRATION/CERTIFICATION
• Describe the educational requirements for the profession/occupation
• Identify at least two different educational institutions/schools offering the program.
• State how much time it takes to complete the program
• Describe the approximate cost for each of the educational institutions
• What is the minimum degree or certification that can be earned for this health care
career?
• Identify the professional certification or registration required
III. JOB OUTLOOK AND EMPLOYMENT
• What is the job availability for this profession? How many jobs are expected to
become available?
• Growth trends in the field: How much is the profession growing?
• Number of jobs advertised locally for example in the Sunday Herald or other
publication
• Is experience required for the jobs? How much? Explain.
• Salaries - Entry level and with experience
• Advancement opportunities, two or more, with or without additional education
5
HSC 0003, Health Care Career Paper (Rev. 7/2021,DF)
IV. PROFESSIONAL ACTIVITIES
• Local, State or National Professional Organization and cost to join as a student.
• Professional journal with publication address and cost.
• Are Continuing Educational Units (CEUs) required for this profession? How many and
how often?
• Describe two or more ways (not course subjects), that members of a professional
organization can gain continuing education requirements and earn CEUs
An anesthesiologist is a medical doctor who specializes in the care of patients undergoing surgical procedures or other medical interventions that require anesthesia.
What is anesthesiologist?The services provided by an anesthesiologist include:
Preoperative evaluation: Before a surgery or procedure, the anesthesiologist evaluates the patient's medical history, current medications, and any underlying medical conditions to determine the best anesthesia plan for the patient.
Anesthesia administration: The anesthesiologist administers various types of anesthesia such as general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or local anesthesia based on the patient's needs and the type of procedure.
Intraoperative management: During the surgery, the anesthesiologist monitors the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.
Postoperative care: After the surgery, the anesthesiologist manages the patient's pain and provides other supportive care as needed.
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What is the obligation of a medical professional that can help a patient make good choices
about healthcare?
A health professional has no obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.
A health professional has no right to help a patient make an informed choice.
check
A health professional has the obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.
A health professional has the obligation to make informed choices for a patient.
The correct answer is D) A health professional has the obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.
As a health care professional, it is your job to make sure the patient has reasonable options. You are 100% allowed to help your patient make an informed choice by stating statistics and facts. However, you can not make the decision for them.
The impact of natural disasters are only seen among vulnerable population
TRUE OR FALSE
Answer: I believe this is True
Explanation: Research indicates they may also have trouble getting access to housing and other resources. The stress linked to lack of resources may have emotional and behavioral health consequences. People of lower SES after a disaster may be more likely to experience distress and depression.
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What is not a recommended way of quitting smoking?
a. quitting all at once
b. switching to low-tar cigarettes
c. taking prescription medicine
d. chewing nicotine gum
(I DO NOT SMOKE AND I DONT SUGGEST SMOKING IT IS HARMFUL AND CAN CAUSE LUNG CANCER THIS IS A QUESTION FOR MY HEALTH CLASS)
Answer:
I believe the answer is c.
how you ensure you were following infection control guidelines when performing your cleaning duties
Answer:
Here are some steps that cleaning personnel can take:
Follow established cleaning protocols: Cleaning personnel should follow established cleaning protocols that are specific to the facility they are working in. These protocols should be based on the most current infection control guidelines and should be reviewed regularly.
Use personal protective equipment (PPE): Cleaning personnel should use appropriate PPE, such as gloves and masks, when performing cleaning duties. PPE helps to protect cleaning personnel from exposure to infectious agents and helps to prevent the spread of infections.
Use appropriate cleaning agents: Cleaning personnel should use cleaning agents that are effective against the specific pathogens they are trying to eliminate. Cleaning agents should be approved by the facility's infection control team and should be used according to the manufacturer's instructions.
Clean and disinfect high-touch surfaces: Cleaning personnel should pay particular attention to high-touch surfaces, such as door handles, light switches, and countertops. These surfaces should be cleaned and disinfected frequently to prevent the spread of infections.
Practice good hand hygiene: Cleaning personnel should practice good hand hygiene by washing their hands frequently with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. Hand sanitizer should be used if soap and water are not available.
Report any issues: Cleaning personnel should report any issues or concerns they have about infection control practices to their supervisor or infection control team. Issues should be addressed promptly to prevent the spread of infections.
Explanation:
Hand hygiene, avoiding infections, and controlling them methods. The most crucial step in preventing the spread of illnesses among patients and Nurses is good hand hygiene.
How can you maintain effective infection & control while working?Before and after preparing food, wash your hands. Don't touch your lips, nose, or hair. Separate between cooked and raw food storage, utensils, and preparation areas should be used.
What are the top 5 guidelines for preventing infections?They include both common precautions (hand washing, personal protective equipment, injection security, environmental cleaning, and coughing manners) and measures based on transmission (contact, droplet, and airborne).
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Mr. A is a surgery patient who has a very high body mass index. During your assessment, you should:
A. Assess skin folds for any problems, especially incontinence associated dermatitis, pressure areas due to tubes/devices/chairs, and other issues.
B. Assess albumin/pre-albumin levels and nutritional intake
C. Obtain assistance when moving the patient
D. A and C
E. All of the above
Answer:
Answer: E) All of the above.
After choosing the best solution, an individual must
develop an action plan.
evaluate solutions.
define the problem.
implement an action plan.
The correct order for these steps is:
Define the problem.Evaluate solutions.Choose the best solution.Develop an action plan.Implement an action plan.What is then first step?Defining the problem is the first step in problem-solving because it helps to clarify the issue at hand and identify the root cause. Once the problem is clearly defined, the next step is to generate and evaluate possible solutions. After evaluating the options, the best solution is selected.
The next stage is to create an action plan, which entails breaking down the selected solution into SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) steps.
Finally, the issue is fixed by putting the action plan into practice. To make sure that the intended outcomes are attained, it is crucial to track the development and assess the effectiveness of the action plan both during and after implementation.
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2. The route of administration used for a drug depends on the intended use of the drug. What route of administration would Martha expect for each of the following illnesses or medications (oral, topical, inhaled, sublingual, mucous membrane, or parenteral route)? Why? a. Annual flu vaccination b. Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack e. Hyperlipidemia d. Nitroglycerin used for angina e. Dermatitis f. Allergic rhinitis g. Insulin h. Tinea pedis i. Conjunctivitis
For Annual flu vaccination, the most common route of administration for flu vaccination is via injection, which is a parenteral route.
Why is route of administration important?Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack: The most effective and common route of administration for bronchodilators during an acute asthma attack is inhalation because it delivers the medication directly to the lungs, where it can act quickly.
Hyperlipidemia: Oral route is the most common route of administration for medication to treat hyperlipidemia because these medications need to be metabolized by the liver.
Nitroglycerin used for angina: Nitroglycerin is commonly administered sublingually because this route of administration allows for rapid absorption and onset of action.
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What are options for nutritional consumption?
4. Jill is focused on improving her flexibility and her muscles' ability to move through a full range of motion. What fitness class should Jill look for?
O A. Yoga
O B. Weightlifting
O C. HIIT
D. Cycling
2. The route of administration used for a drug depends on the intended use of the drug. What route of administration would Martha expect for each of the following illnesses or medications (oral, topical, inhaled, sublingual, mucous membrane, or parenteral route)? Why? a. Annual flu vaccination b. Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack c. Hyperlipidemia d. Nitroglycerin used for angina e. Dermatitis f. Allergic rhinitis g. Insulin h. Tinea pedis i. Conjunctivitis
How do you use prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches
Prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches are often used in special education and therapy to help individuals with developmental disabilities.
What are teaching approaches?Here are some examples of how these strategies can be used:
Prompting strategies:
Prompting involves providing cues or assistance to the individual to help them initiate or complete a task. There are several types of prompting strategies, including:
Verbal prompts: providing verbal instructions or cues to the individual
Visual prompts: using pictures, symbols, or other visual aids to prompt the individual
Physical prompts: physically guiding the individual through the task or activity
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Explain what it means to "lead up" and what are some characteristics this type of leader should have.
Answer: Lead-up means providing any strategy or path to achieve a certain level for an event or situation.
Explanation: A leader should have characteristics like-
1. Team building, A leader must guide everyone as a team in order to achieve something. He just knew how to use everyone's potential and traits.
2. Good communicator, A leader must have excellent communication so that his instructions are clear-cut to the team.
3. Excellent motivator, Motivation is the key to success. Humans need to get motivated from time to time in order to get effective work. So a leader should motivate his team.
4. Good management quality, As a leader his management towards work as well as with workers must be in favor of them so that work can be done smoothly.
5. Confident, A leader must be confident as his persona can influence the mass.