Answer:
Explanation:
Reginald Crundall Punnett
1875-1967
British geneticist who extended the understanding of Mendelian genetics and used sexlinked plumage color genes to bio-engineer the first "autosexing" chicks. This application of genetic recombination saved critical resources for the British government during World War I because female chicks could be immediately identified. Punnett identified examples of autosomal linkage and confirmed classical Mendelian principles through his research and instruction at Cambridge University, where he was honored with the first Arthur Balfour Chair of Genetics, a Royal Society Fellowship, and a Darwin Award.
Reginald Punnett, in full Reginald Crundall Punnett, (born June 20, 1875, Tonbridge, Kent, England—died January 3, 1967, Bilbrook, Somerset), English geneticist who, with the English biologist William Bateson, discovered genetic linkage.
which food does not require the process of glycolysis and fermentation? group of answer choices tofu french bread cheese yogurt saurkraut
Cheese does not require the process of the glycolysis and the fermentation. Option C is correct.
While cheese is made from milk, the cheese-making process involves coagulating the milk proteins (casein) and separating the curd (solid) from the whey (liquid), rather than breaking down the lactose (milk sugar) through glycolysis and fermentation. The curd is then typically pressed and aged, which can result in a wide range of different cheese varieties with distinct textures and flavors.
Glycolysis and fermentation are both important metabolic processes that allow cells to produce energy, particularly in anaerobic conditions. Glycolysis is the first step in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration, while fermentation is a backup process that allows cells to continue producing energy when oxygen is not available.
Hence, C is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Which food does not require the process of glycolysis and fermentation? group of answer choices A) Tofu B) French bread C) Cheese D) yogurt E) Saurkraut."--
bacteria of which classification are most often found in the human body? psychrophiles mesophiles thermophiles hyperthermophiles
The classification of bacteria mostly found in human body is: (2) mesophiles.
Bacteria are the prokaryotic organisms which can exist in any environment. The bacteria are unicellular structures. They can be both harmful as well as useful for the environment or for other larger organisms. The examples of bacteria are Salmonella, E.coli, etc.
Mesophiles are the bacterial organisms which are able to grow maximally in the moderate environment range which is neither too hot nor too cold. This range falls within 20 to 45 °C. Since the temperature of human body falls within this range, the bacteria found in humans body are mesophiles.
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List down all the words (about atmosphere) (science)
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Answer:
1. Oxygen
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Water vapor
5. Carbon dioxide
What is the allele frequency of a population in which you have 20 dominant allele and 5 recessive alleles for a total of 25 alleles
Answer:
The allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.8 or 80%, and the allele frequency of the recessive allele is 0.2 or 20%.
Explanation:
The allele frequency refers to the proportion of a particular allele within a population. To calculate the allele frequency of a population, we need to count the number of alleles of each type and divide by the total number of alleles in the population.
In this case, we have 20 dominant alleles and 5 recessive alleles, for a total of 25 alleles in the population.
To calculate the allele frequency of the dominant allele, we divide the number of dominant alleles by the total number of alleles:
allele frequency of the dominant allele = number of dominant alleles / total number of alleles
allele frequency of the dominant allele = 20 / 25
allele frequency of the dominant allele = 0.8 or 80%
To calculate the allele frequency of the recessive allele, we divide the number of recessive alleles by the total number of alleles:
allele frequency of the recessive allele = number of recessive alleles / total number of alleles
allele frequency of the recessive allele = 5 / 25
allele frequency of the recessive allele = 0.2 or 20%
Therefore, the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.8 or 80%, and the allele frequency of the recessive allele is 0.2 or 20%.
the cells that remain in the ovary after the egg is released change into a hormone-producing structure called the
The cells that are still in the ovary after the egg is expelled develop into the corpus luteum, a tissue that produces hormones.
Your corpus luteum begins to develop from the components of the follicle once the egg has exited it. The hormones progesterone and estrogen are created in your corpus luteum. Eggs and hormones like progesterone and estrogen are produced by the ovaries.
These hormones facilitate pregnancy and aid in the growth of females. A woman's cycle involves the release of an egg from the ovaries. Ovulation refers to the release of an egg. The egg is discharged into the fallopian tube during ovulation from the follicle in the ovary. At ovulation, the empty follicle that endures after the egg has been expelled.
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which of the following sentences states the central idea of the passage? animals have defenses against being eaten, and so do plants. plants like milkweed have strong chemicals that can make animals sick. poison ivy has oils in its leaves that will give animals an itchy rash. blackberries have sharp thorns all over the plant.
The central idea of the passage is option A: animals have defenses against being eaten, and so do plants.
The passage's main idea is that both plants and animals have mechanisms for protecting themselves against predators. In the passage, it is mentioned that plants like blackberries have sharp thorns all over the plant, poison ivy has oils in its leaves that would cause animals to get an itching rash, and milkweed has potent compounds that can sicken animals.
For many plants, physical defenses serve as their first line of defense. Herbivores find it challenging to consume plants because of their protections. Physical barriers include things like the thorns on roses and the spikes on trees like hawthorn. The herbivores are harmed by these physical protections and are prevented from consuming the stems or leaves of plants.
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Complete question is:
"Animals use many ways to avoid their predators. Behavioral responses, like running away, are very important. In contrast, plants are “sessile,” meaning that they cannot move. Roots anchor them to the soil, so plants can’t run away. Therefore, they’ve developed physical and chemical defenses to protect themselves against herbivores, which are animals that live by eating plant tissues."
which of the following sentences states the central idea of the passage?
animals have defenses against being eaten, and so do plants.
plants like milkweed have strong chemicals that can make animals sick.
poison ivy has oils in its leaves that will give animals an itchy rash.
blackberries have sharp thorns all over the plant.
Which procedure is the first step in the production of a transgenic organism
Answer:
Recombinant DNA is transferred to a bacterial cell.
Explanation:
what is gene regulation that occurs in a eukaryotic organism when the dna is uncoiled and loosened from nucleosomes to bind transcription factors called?
Answer:
Explanation:
In eukaryotic cells, the DNA is contained inside the cell's core where it is deciphered into RNA. The recently blended RNA is then shipped out of the core into the cytoplasm where ribosomes make an interpretation of the RNA into protein. The cycles of record and interpretation are truly isolated by the atomic layer; record happens just inside the core, and interpretation happens just external the core inside the cytoplasm. The guideline of quality articulation can happen at all phases of the cycle. Guideline might happen when the DNA is uncoiled and released from nucleosomes to tie record factors (epigenetics), when the RNA is interpreted (transcriptional level), when the RNA is handled and traded to the cytoplasm after it is deciphered (post-transcriptional level), when the RNA is converted into protein (translational level), or after the protein has been made (post-translational level).
Gene regulation in a eukaryotic organism when the DNA is uncoiled and loosened from nucleosomes to bind transcription factors is called "transcriptional activation."
Gene regulation is the process of controlling the expression of genes by turning them on or off or altering their expression levels. Transcription factors are proteins that regulate gene expression by binding to DNA and controlling the rate of transcription.
Gene expression in eukaryotes is complex due to the presence of nucleosomes, histones, and other regulatory elements. Gene expression is regulated at several levels, including chromatin structure, transcriptional regulation, post-transcriptional regulation, translational regulation, and post-translational regulation.
Chromatin structure: In eukaryotes, DNA is packaged with histones to form nucleosomes, which further compact into higher-order structures. Gene expression can be regulated by chromatin structure, which can make the DNA inaccessible to transcription factors and other regulatory proteins. The remodeling of chromatin structure can occur in response to various signals and influences transcriptional regulation.
Transcriptional regulation: Transcription factors are proteins that bind to DNA and regulate the rate of transcription. They can either activate or repress transcription depending on the presence of specific DNA sequences called regulatory elements. Transcription factors bind to these regulatory elements and recruit other proteins that help to initiate or block transcription.
Post-transcriptional regulation: Post-transcriptional regulation occurs after the RNA has been transcribed from DNA. It involves modifications to RNA that can affect stability, splicing, or translation. Examples of post-transcriptional regulation include alternative splicing, RNA editing, RNA localization, and RNA degradation.
Translational regulation: Translational regulation involves the control of protein synthesis by regulating the rate of translation. This can occur through various mechanisms, such as inhibiting the initiation of translation, increasing or decreasing the stability of mRNA, or regulating the availability of ribosomes.
Post-translational regulation: Post-translational regulation occurs after the protein has been synthesized. It involves modifications to the protein that can affect its stability, localization, activity, or interactions with other proteins. Examples of post-translational modifications include phosphorylation, methylation, acetylation, ubiquitination, and glycosylation.
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_____17. Which is not an effect of global warming?
a. rising sea levels
b. increase in glacial activity
c. drought
d. desertification
Answer:
а
Explanation:
Because the greenhouse effect causes the glaciers to melt, due to which the sea level rises.
What is light? Please respond in 1-2 complete sentences using your best grammar.
Answer:
Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye and travels at a constant speed of 299,792,458 meters per second in a vacuum.
Explanation:
What is light? Please respond in 1-2 complete sentences using your best grammar.
Answer:
In mine own answer, I think light is a source people use to see in the dark or for other reasons it's like something we need in life. Without light how would we live? Where does light come from? I feel like people ask this most of the time. How do we know what light is? All we probably know is that it's a source of light coming from some sort of powerful energy. So basically, light is a type of electromagnetic radiation that allows people to see more clearly in the dark.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
how does the cell make proteins inside the ribisome
what would happen if you ran the dialysis protocol, but failed to rinse off the sac after removing it from the large test tube? (how would the results differ from what you observed?
If you ran the dialysis protocol and failed to rinse off the sac after removing it from the large test tube, the results would differ significantly from the expected observations.
1. Contamination: Without rinsing the sac, any substances that may have adhered to the outer surface of the sac during the dialysis process will remain. This can cause contamination of the sample and lead to inaccurate results.
2. Inaccurate measurements: The presence of excess solutes on the surface of the sac may alter the concentration of the solution inside the sac. This would make it difficult to accurately measure the amount of solute that passed through the dialysis membrane.
3. Misinterpretation of results: Failing to rinse the sac could lead to an overestimation or underestimation of the effectiveness of the dialysis process. You might observe higher concentrations of solutes in the dialysis sac than expected, leading you to believe that the dialysis process was less effective than it actually was.
4. Compromised membrane integrity: The membrane's integrity could be compromised if substances from the large test tube adhere to it, which might affect the selectivity of the membrane and its ability to retain certain solutes.
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mutant saccharomyces cerevisiae cells that lack the gene encoding securin can divide more or less normally by mitosis, without significant chromosome segregation defects. however, cells harboring a nondegradable version of securin have major cell cycle defects. explain in two sentences: 1. when exactly in the cell cycle that these cells would arrest. be specific 2. why do these cells arrest explaining the biochemical activity that normally causes securin degradition and what is caused by this lacking outcome.
Mutant Saccharomyces cerevisiae cells harboring a nondegradable version of Securin have major cell cycle defects: they get arrested in the metaphase of cell cycle, which is due to breaking down of Securin.
Mutant Saccharomyces cerevisiae cells that are deficient in the Securin gene can divide by mitosis with only minor chromosomal segregation flaws. Yet, as they are unable to activate separate to enter anaphase, cells containing a nondegradable form of Securin naturally arrest in metaphase.
These cells would, as anticipated, arrest in the metaphase.The cohesin proteins that hold sister chromatids together are broken down by the enzyme separase, which is inhibited by the protein Securin. Sister chromatids can separate and travel to opposing poles of the cell when Securin is destroyed by the anaphase-promoting complex (APC), which activates separase and causes it to cleave cohesin proteins. Cell cycle arrest in metaphase results from this.To know more about Securin, refer:
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the formation and convergence of the primate eye orbits is associated with: a) nocturnal vision. b) stereoscopic vision. c) increased olfaction. d) loss of a tail in all anthropoid
The formation and convergence of the primate eye orbits is associated with stereoscopic vision.
B is the correct answer.
The term "stereoscopic vision" describes how two human eyes can simultaneously perceive the world in three dimensions. To be able to observe the same object differently, the eyes must be healthy and coordinated in their movements.
Humans can now interpret distance which also helps them develop a real sense of depth perception. Retinal disparity, which occurs in both people and animals, describes how each eye perceives images slightly differently. This makes it possible for the brain to comprehend images without any movement.
It is created by matching up complementary copies of various pictures, then computing the disparity between the two images' retinas. The end result is the most accurate picture that can be obtained of the ambient depth perception, though the disparity thus obtained varies by a very small margin.
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how are the variable domains of antibodies formed? view available hint(s)for part a how are the variable domains of antibodies formed? an undifferentiated t cell has many possible segments of dna that code for the variable region and for the joining region, plus a single segment that codes for the constant region. rearrangement of the dna by recombination prior to transcription allows for a wide variety of variable domains to be produced. as b cells are produced in the bone marrow, they are exposed to a variety of chemicals. depending on the signals present, the dna can be instructed to splice in certain ways to produce variable products. an undifferentiated b cell has many possible segments of dna that code for the variable region and for the joining region, plus a single segment that codes for the constant region. rearrangement of the dna by recombination prior to transcription allows for a wide variety of variable domains to be produced. an undifferentiated b cell has many possible segments of dna that code for the variable region and for the joining region, plus a single segment that codes for the constant region. after transcription, differential splicing during rna processing allows for a wide variety of variable domains to be produced.
The variable domains of antibodies are formed through a process called V(D)J recombination, which occurs during the development of B cells in the bone marrow.
B cells have many possible segments of DNA that code for the variable region and for the joining region, plus a single segment that codes for the constant region. Through recombination, these segments are rearranged prior to transcription to create a unique combination of variable and joining regions, which determines the specificity of the antibody.
The process is aided by the activity of enzymes called recombination-activating genes (RAGs). This allows for a wide variety of variable domains to be produced, providing the immune system with the ability to recognize and respond to a diverse array of antigens.
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depurination of purine bases results in an apurinic site. assume a single depurination event occurs in the gc base pair of the sequence below and is not repaired. then, if two rounds of replication occur, which of the following dna sequences will exist after two rounds of replication? remember that when dna polymerases encounter an apurinic site, most often an a is incorporated into the newly synthesized strand. assume this is true for the sequence below. ...tact... ...atga...
After a single depurination event occurs in the GC base pair of the given DNA sequence "...TACT... ...ATGA...", an apurinic site will be generated. During replication, the DNA polymerase will incorporate an A nucleotide in the newly synthesized strand opposite the apurinic site.
Thus, after one round of replication, the two resulting DNA strands will be:
Original strand: ...TACT... ...ATGA...
Newly synthesized strand: ...TAC(A)... ...ATGA...
During the second round of replication, the newly synthesized strand from the first round will act as the template strand for further replication. As a result, the two resulting DNA strands after the second round of replication will be:
Original strand: ...TACT... ...ATGA...
Newly synthesized strand 1: ...TAC(A)... ...ATGA...
Newly synthesized strand 2: ...TAC(A)... ...ATGA...
Therefore, both newly synthesized strands will have an A nucleotide opposite the apurinic site, resulting in the same sequence.
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a frameshift mutation that restores the open reading frame of the gene downstream from the mutations is divisible by:
The modification of the whole codon sequence following an insertion or deletion. The reading frame of the protein's coding region is altered by a single base pair deletion or insertion.
That can leave the entire basis lacking. Everything would lose its balance and fall apart. By introducing one or more nucleotides to the gene, an insertion modifies the DNA sequence. Hence, the protein produced by the gene could not work effectively. By eliminating at least one nucleotide from a gene, a deletion modifies the DNA sequence. The insertion or deletion of nucleotide bases in amounts that are not multiples of three is referred to as a frameshift mutation in a gene.
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What is the selective advantage to having low pigmentation (lighter skin) in southern and northern latitudes?
Answer:
The selective advantage of having low pigmentation, or lighter skin, in southern is the ability to produce more vitamin D from sunlight. Vitamin D is essential for bone health and immune function, and can also play a role in preventing certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases. In regions with lower levels of sunlight, individuals with lighter skin are better able to synthesize vitamin D, as melanin (the pigment that gives skin its color) can interfere with this process.
In northern latitudes, where there is less sunlight throughout the year, having lighter skin allows for more efficient vitamin D production. Conversely, in southern latitudes where there is more sunlight, individuals with darker skin are better protected against harmful UV radiation from the sun. Melanin acts as a natural sunscreen by absorbing UV rays and preventing damage to DNA in skin cells.
Explanation:
Describe the role of the gametophyte and the sporophyte in the plant reproductive cycle.g
The plant reproductive cycle involves two distinct multicellular phases, the gametophyte and the sporophyte. The gametophyte is the haploid stage in which the plant produces gametes, which are sex cells that fuse during fertilization to form a diploid zygote. In most plants, the gametophyte is a small, inconspicuous plant that is dependent on the sporophyte for nutrients and protection.
The sporophyte is the diploid stage in which the plant produces spores, which are asexual reproductive cells that can develop into new haploid gametophytes. The sporophyte is the dominant stage in the life cycle of most plants, and it is typically larger and more complex than the gametophyte. The sporophyte is also responsible for producing seeds, which are structures that protect and nourish the developing embryo.
In summary, the gametophyte produces haploid gametes, which fuse during fertilization to form a diploid zygote that develops into the sporophyte. The sporophyte, in turn, produces spores that can develop into new gametophytes, as well as seeds that protect and nourish the developing embryo.
if a genetic mutation caused seminal fluid to coagulate more quickly, what would be a likely effect for the male reproductive system?
Answer:
Delivery of semen and viability of sperm would be affected.
Explanation:
Seminal fluid is formed in seminal vesicle. Sperm comes from epididymis and vas deferens before joining seminal vesicle. The liquifaction time of semen is very important in viability of sperm
If a genetic mutation caused seminal fluid to coagulate more quickly, the most likely effect on the male reproductive system would be decreased fertility.
What is the male reproductive system?The male reproductive system is made up of the testes, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, urethra. The testes are where sperm are produced in the male reproductive system, while the rest of the structures transport and assist in the formation of semen.
The semen is a mixture of seminal fluid, which is secreted by the prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and bulbourethral glands, as well as sperm cells from the testes in the male reproductive system. The seminal fluid is critical since it provides a medium for the sperm cells to travel to the egg during reproduction. The coagulation of seminal fluid, which is a normal phase of ejaculation, is required for fertilization. If a genetic mutation causes the seminal fluid to coagulate too quickly, sperm cells may not be able to travel efficiently to the egg, reducing the likelihood of fertilization and decreasing male fertility.
In conclusion, a genetic mutation causing seminal fluid to coagulate more quickly could lead to decreased fertility in the male reproductive system.
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which is mismatched regarding helminths? group of answer choices larval development of helminths occurs in the final host in humans, helminths generally infect the gastrointestinal tract an elephantiasis infection may result in lymphedema of the legs, arms, breasts, and genitalia
The mismatched statement regarding helminths is "larval development of helminths occurs in the final host."
Helminths, also known as parasitic worms, generally infect the gastrointestinal tract in humans. Elephantiasis, caused by helminth infection, can result in lymphedema affecting the legs, arms, breasts, and genitalia. However, the larval development of helminths does not always occur in the final host.
In many cases, the life cycle of helminths involves several stages of development, with the larvae typically developing in intermediate hosts or environmental sources before reaching the final host. For example, some helminths like tapeworms have a life cycle involving two hosts. The larval stage develops in an intermediate host, such as an animal or an insect, and the adult stage occurs in the final host, such as a human.
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which of the following is not an example of substrate-level phosphorylation? a. 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate -----> 3-phosphoglycerate b. isocitrate ----> alpha-ketoglutarate c. phosphenolpyruvate ----> pyruvate d. succinylcoa ----> succinate
The correct answer is B. Isocitrate --> alpha-ketoglutarate isn't always an example of substrate-degree phosphorylation.
Phosphorylation is a biochemical process that involves the addition of a phosphate group to a molecule, typically a protein or a nucleotide. Phosphorylation is catalyzed by a family of enzymes called kinases, which transfer phosphate groups from ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to specific amino acid residues on the target protein.
The addition of a phosphate group can alter the structure and activity of the target protein, leading to changes in its function or localization within the cell. There are styles of phosphorylation: serine/threonine phosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation. Serine/threonine kinases phosphorylate serine or threonine residues on target proteins, while tyrosine kinases phosphorylate tyrosine residues.
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Which two statements explain how a cell's parts help it get or break down nutrients? A. The mitochondria change energy in organic compounds into a form the cell can use. B. The contractile vacuole collects and squirts excess water out of the cell. C. The nucleus stores instructions needed to make proteins from amino acids. D. The chloroplasts take in energy from sunlight and change it into organic matter.
Answer:
A. The mitochondria change energy in organic compounds into a form the cell can use
D. The chloroplasts take in energy from sunlight and change it into organic matter.
Prof. Voytek discussed the importance of modeling problems in a variety of domains. In general, when we create a model of a system, we are working at the ______ level. a. computational b. algorithmic c. implementational d. None of these
In general, when we create a model of a system, we are working at the computational level. By working at the computational level, we can develop an abstract representation of the problem and devise appropriate solutions. The correct option is A.
A model is a visual or mathematical description of a system or a process. It is a replica of a particular phenomenon or structure in order to gain a deeper understanding of it. Modeling is a powerful tool for understanding the behavior of complex systems, identifying key mechanisms and structures that control their performance, and evaluating potential interventions to improve them. When modeling a system, it is important to consider various domains in which the system can be applied. To put it simply, modeling allows us to better understand a system, which is useful for identifying problems and developing solutions to those problems.
The computational level is the level at which a model of a system is created in order to analyze it. The computational level is concerned with the processes and operations that are necessary to transform inputs into outputs, rather than the physical details of a system. This level is responsible for the organization of the algorithm, the program flow, and the data structures that make up the system.
So, the correct option is A.
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as an environment changes, some organisms have a higher fitness than others in the new environment. this can lead to . choose the correct answer.
As an environment changes, some organisms have a higher fitness than others in the new environment. This can lead to greater reproductive rates and survivorship of those organisms with higher fitness.
An evolutionary mechanism is natural selection. Environment-adapted organisms have a higher chance of surviving and dispersing the genes that contributed to their success. Throughout time, this mechanism leads to the evolution and divergence of species.
One method to explain the millions of species that have existed on Earth is through natural selection.
The idea of evolution by natural selection is ascribed to Charles Darwin (1809-1882) and Alfred Russel Wallace (1823-1913), who co-wrote a paper on it in 1858. After the publication of On the Origin of Species in 1859, however, Darwin has typically eclipsed Wallace.
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Complete question:
As an environment changes, some organisms have a higher fitness than others in the new environment. This can lead to __________.
what circulatory system absorbs fat-soluble chylomicrons from the gastrointestinal tract? group of answer choices
Chylomicrons are massive long-chain fatty acid-based lipoprotein complexes that move fats through the lymphatic circulatory system. The gut cells take up the fats.
The majority of the oil absorbed from the newborn's lipid-rich meal entering the blood circulation is due to the lymphatic system, which transports triglyceride-loaded particles known as chylomicrons from the villi of the small intestine to the venous circulation close to the heart.
Some tissues and organs create, store, and transport white blood cells, which fight infections and other diseases. The lymphatic veins, lymph nodes, spleen, and bone marrow make up this system (a network of thin tubes that carry lymph and white blood cells).
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Complete question - What circulatory system absorbs fat-soluble chylomicrons from the gastrointestinal tract?
Group of answer choices
hepatic
lymphatic
endocrine
urinary
what is the most likely consequence if you inhibit the ability of the protein ran to exchange gdp for gtp
The most likely result of inhibiting the capacity of the protein ran to exchange gdp for gtp is that nuclear transport receptors would be unable to release their payload in the nucleus. Option c is Correct.
Supporting the creation of complexes comprising an exportin and cargos such RNAs, RNPs, or proteins that are intended for export is one of the major roles played by nuclear Ran. GTP. Removal of the Ran. GTP from the complex in the cytoplasm causes its instability and releases the export cargo.
RanGTP, which is tied to GTP, is active, whereas RanGDP, which is coupled to GDP, is inert. Two kinds of partner proteins, which either promote the RanGTP or RanGDP form, control these alternating guanine-nucleotide states of Ran. Option c is Correct.
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Correct Question:
What is the most likely consequence if you inhibit the ability of the protein ran to exchange gdp for gtp.
a) nuclear transport receptors would be unable to bind cargo
b) nuclear transport receptors would be unable to enter the nucleus
c) nuclear transport receptors would be unable to release their cargo in the nucleus
d) nuclear transport receptors would interact irreversibly with the nuclear power fibrils.
____ spermatogonia divide through meiosis to create _____ spermatids with ____ chromosomes each
Haploid; 2; 46
Diploid; 4; 23
Diploid; 4; 46
Haploid; 2; 23
Answer:b
Explanation:
Diploid spermatogonia divide through meiosis to create 4 spermatids with chromosomes 23 each, which is option B, as during spermatogenesis, diploid spermatogonia divide through mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes, which then undergo meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes.
What is cell division?Spermatogenesis is the process by which diploid spermatogonia (sperm stem cells) divide and differentiate into mature haploid sperm cells. The process of spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. During the first stage of spermatogenesis, the diploid spermatogonia divide through mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes. Each primary spermatocyte then undergoes meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes. These secondary spermatocytes then undergo meiosis II to produce four haploid spermatids. The spermatids then differentiate into mature sperm cells through a process called spermiogenesis.
Hence, diploid spermatogonia divide through meiosis to create 4 spermatids with chromosomes 23 each, which is option B, as during spermatogenesis, diploid spermatogonia divide through mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes, which then undergo meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes.
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a species of birds, known scientifically as cyanocitta cristata, eat the acorns of oak trees. c. cristata will find acorns from a variety of locations and bring them back to their nesting location, which can be a mile or further from the original location of the acorn. the bird does not eat all of the acorns, however. c. cristata may harvest some of the nuts by burying them in soil. these buried acorns can germinate under the right conditions. what mechanism of evolutionary change does this example best represent?
The behavior of the bird in burying acorns improves the survival and reproduction of oak trees, which in turn benefits the survival and reproduction of the bird community. This example illustrates how natural selection operates.
This example represents the mechanism of natural selection. The birds that have a preference for certain traits in acorns, such as size or taste, will be more likely to survive and reproduce.
The birds that bury the acorns may also inadvertently select for traits that promote survival and reproduction of the oak tree, such as increased tolerance for burial or seed coat thickness. Over time, these traits may become more prevalent in the bird and oak populations, respectively, as a result of the selective pressures exerted by the birds' behavior.
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