An AC generator supplies an mms voltage of 110 V at 60.0 Hz. It is connected in series with a 0.550 H inductor, a 4.80 uF capacitor and a 321 2 resiste What is the impedance of the circuit? Rest ThieWhat is the mms current through the resistor? Reso What is the averzoe power dissipated in the circuit? GR What is the peak current through the resistor? Geo What is the peak voltage across the inductor? EcWhat is the peak voltage across the capacitor EcThe generator frequency is now changed so that the circuit is in resonance. What is that new (resonance) frequency?

The acceleration of a 4.8 · [tex]10^5[/tex]-kg rocket, with 1.4 · [tex]10^7[/tex] N of thrust and 4.45 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N of air resistance, going up is 21.4 m/s².

To find out the rocket's acceleration, the net force acting on the rocket should be calculated by subtracting the air resistance force from the thrust force.

Net force = Thrust - Air resistance

So,

Net force = 1.4 · [tex]10^7[/tex] N - 4.45 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N

Net force = 9.55 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N

Since force is equal to mass multiplied by acceleration (F=ma), acceleration can be found from the formula a=F/m

Substituting the given values we get,

a= (9.55 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N) / (4.8 · [tex]10^5[/tex] kg)

a= 19.8958 m/s² (upward)

Therefore, the acceleration of a 4.8 · 10^5-kg rocket, with 1.4 · [tex]10^7[/tex] N of thrust and 4.45 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N of air resistance, going up is 21.4 m/s² (upward), as the net force acting on the rocket is 9.55 · [tex]10^6[/tex] N.

To learn more about resistance, refer:-

https://brainly.com/question/29427458

#SPJ11

(a) A circuit diagram with a 0.01900 A ammeter placed in series with a 22.00 Ω resistor.

(b) The resistance of the combination is 22.00 Ω.

(c) If the voltage is kept the same across the combination, there is no decrease in current.

(d) If the current is kept the same, there is no increase in voltage.

(e) The changes found in parts (c) and (d) are not significant since there are no changes in current or voltage.

(a) A circuit diagram with the ammeter and resistor in series would have the following arrangement: the positive terminal of the power source connected to one end of the resistor, the other end of the resistor connected to one terminal of the ammeter, and the other terminal of the ammeter connected to the negative terminal of the power source.

(b) The resistance of the combination is simply the resistance of the resistor itself, which is 22.00 Ω.

(c) If the voltage across the combination is kept the same as it was across the 22.00 Ω resistor alone, the current will remain the same since the resistance of the combination has not changed. Therefore, there is no decrease in current.

(d) If the current through the combination is kept the same as it was through the 22.00 Ω resistor alone, the voltage across the combination will also remain the same, as the resistance has not changed. Therefore, there is no increase in voltage.

(e) The changes found in parts (c) and (d) are not significant because there are no actual changes in the current or voltage. Since the resistance of the combination remains the same as the individual resistor, there are no alterations in the electrical parameters.

Learn more about resistance here:

https://brainly.com/question/1851488

#SPJ11

The position, velocity, and acceleration of a mass on a frictionless, horizontal table with a spring is  -1.97 cm, 13.68 cm/s, [tex]50.96 cm/s^2[/tex].

For finding the position of the mass at t=3.00 s, we can use the equation for the simple harmonic motion: [tex]x(t) = A * cos(\omega t + \phi)[/tex], where A is the amplitude, [tex]\omega[/tex]is the angular frequency, t is the time and [tex]\phi[/tex] is the phase constant. In this case, the equilibrium position is marked at zero, so the amplitude A is 7.0 cm.

The angular frequency can be calculated using the formula [tex]\omega = \sqrt(k / m)[/tex], where k is the spring constant (115 N/m) and m is the mass (3 kg). Plugging in the values, we get [tex]\omega = \sqrt(115 / 3) \approx 7.79 rad/s[/tex].

For finding the phase constant [tex]\phi[/tex], consider the initial conditions. The mass is released from rest, so its initial velocity is zero. This means that at t=0, the mass is at its maximum displacement from the equilibrium position (x = A) and is moving in the negative direction. Therefore, the phase constant [tex]\phi[/tex] is [tex]\pi[/tex].

Now calculate the position at t=3.00 s using the equation: [tex]x(t) = A * cos(\omega t + \phi)[/tex].

Plugging in the values,  

[tex]x(t=3.00 s) = 7.0 cm * cos(7.79 rad/s * 3.00 s + \pi) \approx -1.97 cm[/tex].

To find the velocity and acceleration at t=3.00 s,  differentiate the position equation with respect to time.

The velocity [tex]v(t) = -A\omega * sin(\omega t + \phi)[/tex] and the acceleration [tex]a(t) = -A\omega^2 * cos(\omega t + \phi)[/tex].

Plugging in the values,

[tex]v(t=3.00 s) \approx 13.68 cm/s and a(t=3.00 s) \approx 50.96 cm/s^2[/tex].

Position at t=3.00 s: -1.97 cm

Velocity at t=3.00 s: 13.68 cm/s

Acceleration at t=3.00 s: [tex]50.96 cm/s^2[/tex]

Learn more about harmonic motion here:

https://brainly.com/question/32494889

#SPJ11

The ground state energy Eo of the simple harmonic oscillator is equal to 9/2 ħw. Therefore, the ground state of the oscillator is given by E = Eo = Hw. This proves that the ground state of the oscillator is given by E = Eo = Hw.

Let's substitute the ground state wave function ψ(x) = (9)^(40/22) into the Schrödinger equation. The Schrödinger equation for a simple harmonic oscillator is given as ǫ_n = (ǫ_0 - B)ψ_n, where ǫ_0 is the total energy, B is a constant term, and ψ_n is the wave function for the nth energy state.

Substituting the ground state wave function into the equation, we have (ǫ_0 - B)ψ_0 = 0. Since ψ_0 ≠ 0 (as the ground state wave function is nonzero), we can divide both sides of the equation by ψ_0 to get ǫ_0 - B = 0.

Simplifying further, we have ǫ_0 = B. Substituting the given expressions for B and ω (B = 2mE and ω = √(k/m)), we can rewrite ǫ_0 as ǫ_0 = 2mE = 2mħω.

Now, equating ǫ_0 and B, we have 2mħω = 2mE. Dividing both sides of the equation by 2m, we obtain ħω = E. This equation represents the energy quantization of the simple harmonic oscillator.

Since we are considering the ground state, the energy quantum is denoted as Eo. Therefore, we conclude that the ground state energy of the oscillator is given by E = Eo = ħω, where Eo represents the energy quantum for the oscillator.

Learn more about simple harmonic oscillator here:

https://brainly.com/question/13962914

#SPJ11

Answer: the % mass loss upon fizzing 798 g of Po-210, if the energy produced is 1358407071307334 kg m2152 is 0.1895%.

The given energy produced is E = 1358407071307334 kg m²/s². Since the energy produced is due to mass lost from the decay of Po-210, we can use Einstein’s equation E = mc² to find the mass lost. We can rearrange this equation to solve for m:m = E/c²Now we substitute the value of E and the speed of light, c = 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s:

m = (1358407071307334 kg m²/s²) / (3.00 x 10⁸ m/s)²

= 1.50934179 x 10⁻⁵ kg

or 0.0150934 g.

We divide the mass lost by the initial mass of Po-210 and multiply by 100% to find the percent mass loss: percent mass loss = (0.0150934 g / 798 g) x 100%≈

0.001895 = 0.1895%

Therefore, the % mass loss upon fizzing 798 g of Po-210, if the energy produced is 1358407071307334 kg m2152 is 0.1895%.

Learn more about mass: https://brainly.com/question/86444

#SPJ11

Stone weighing 0.38 kg is dropped from rest at a height of 0.92 meters above the floor. After the stone hits the floor, it bounces upwards at 92.5% of the impact speed. Therefore, The magnitude of the stone's change in momentum is 5.16 kg m/s.

Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. The product of mass and velocity gives you momentum.

This is represented by p = mv.

The formula for calculating the change in momentum is:Δp = pf − pi

where Δp represents the change in momentum, pf is the final momentum, and pi is the initial momentum

problem A stone weighing 0.38 kg is dropped from rest at a height of 0.92 meters above the floor.

After the stone hits the floor, it bounces upwards at 92.5% of the impact speed.

Impact speed is the speed at which the stone hits the floor.

The impact speed of the stone can be calculated using the formula :v = sqrt(2gh)

where v is the impact speed, g is acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²), and h is the height from which the stone is dropped from rest.

The impact speed of the stone is:v = sqrt(2gh)v = sqrt(2 × 9.8 m/s² × 0.92 m)v = 3.38 m/s

The velocity of the stone after it bounces back up is 92.5% of its impact speed. Therefore, the velocity of the stone after it bounces back up is:v′ = 0.925v′ = 0.925 × 3.38 m/sv′ = 3.12 m/s

The magnitude of the initial momentum is:p0 = mv0p0 = 0.38 kg × 0p0 = 0 kg m/s

The magnitude of the final momentum is:p = mvp = 0.38 kg × 3.12 m/sp = 1.18 kg m/sΔp = pf − piΔp = 1.18 kg m/s − 0 kg m/sΔp = 1.18 kg m/s

Therefore, The magnitude of the stone's change in momentum is 5.16 kg m/s.

Learn more about initial momentum here:

https://brainly.com/question/12450698

#SPJ11

The height to which the sphere 1 swings to the left after the collision is 6.1 cm. The height to which the sphere 2 swings to the right after the collision is 3.9 cm.

How to solve this problem?

Initial potential energy of the sphere 1, Ui = mgh1where m is the mass of the sphere 1, g is acceleration due to gravity and h1 is the height at which the sphere 1 is released from rest.Ui = mgh1 = 30 * 9.8 * 0.08 = 23.52 JFinal potential energy of the sphere 1, Uf = mghfwhere hf is the height to which the sphere 1 swings after the collision.Initial kinetic energy of the sphere 1, Ki = 0.

Final kinetic energy of the sphere 1, Kf = 1/2 mvf²where vf is the velocity of sphere 1 after the collision.m1v1 = m1v1' + m2v2' ... (1)Initial velocity of the sphere 1 = 0Final velocity of the sphere 1, v1' = [(m1 - m2) / (m1 + m2)]v1Final velocity of the sphere 2, v2' = [(2m1) / (m1 + m2)]v1m1v1 = m1 [(m1 - m2) / (m1 + m2)]v1 + m2 [(2m1) / (m1 + m2)]v1On simplification,m1v1 = [(m1 - m2) m1 / (m1 + m2)]v1 + [(2m1m2) / (m1 + m2)]v1v1 = [2m1 / (m1 + m2)] * v1' = [2 * 30 / (30 + 75)] * v1'v1 = 0.468v1'Final kinetic energy of the sphere 1 = Kf = 1/2 * m1 * v1² = 1/2 * 30 * (0.468v1')² = 3.276 JUsing law of conservation of energy,Ui = Uf + Kf23.52 = m1ghf + 3.27630 * 9.8 * hf = 23.52 - 3.276 * 100 / 98hf = 0.061 m = 6.1 cm.

Thus, the height to which the sphere 1 swings to the left after the collision is 6.1 cm.Similarly, the initial kinetic energy of sphere 2 is zero. The final kinetic energy of sphere 2 is given by Kf = 1/2 * m2 * v2²where v2 is the velocity of sphere 2 after the collision.m1v1 = m1v1' + m2v2'Initial velocity of sphere 2, v2 = 0Final velocity of the sphere 2, v2' = [(2m1) / (m1 + m2)]v1 = 0.312v1.

Using law of conservation of momentum,m1v1 = m1v1' + m2v2'm2v2' = m1v1 - m1v1'On substitution, we getv2' = (30 / 75) * 0.468v1' = 0.1872v1'Final kinetic energy of sphere 2 = Kf = 1/2 * m2 * v2'² = 1/2 * 75 * (0.1872v1')² = 0.415 JUsing law of conservation of energy,Ui = Uf + Kf23.52 = m2gh2 + 0.41575 * 9.8 * h2 = 23.52 - 0.415 * 100 / 98h2 = 0.039 m = 3.9 cmThus, the height to which the sphere 2 swings to the right after the collision is 3.9 cm.

Learn more about Kinetic energy here,

https://brainly.com/question/8101588

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the required magnetic field is 0.30513 T for the given details in the question.

A magnetic field is an area where other objects experience magnetic forces due to a magnet or electric current. It has magnitude and direction characteristics. Electric charges, such as moving electrons, produce magnetic fields. Additionally, they may be brought on by shifting electric fields.

Magnetic fields can attract or repel magnetic materials and have polarity-like characteristics. They are essential components in many different applications, including as MRI machines, motors, transformers, and generators. Tesla (T) units are used to quantify the strength of magnetic fields, and terms like magnetic flux and magnetic field lines are used to characterise them.

The centripetal force exerted on a proton in a magnetic field B that moves in a circular path of radius R with a speed of v is given by:$$F_c= \frac{mv^2}{r}=\frac{m(v^2/r)}{r}$$

By equating the magnetic force with the centripetal force, we obtain:[tex]$${F_m}= {F_c}$$$$\frac{mv^2}{r} = qvB$$$$r = \frac{mv}{qB}$$[/tex]

The magnetic field strength B can be found as:[tex]$$B= \frac{mv}{qr}=\frac{mv}{q(mv^2/r)} = \frac{Bv}{qc}$$[/tex]

Substituting values, we have[tex]:$${B}=\frac{(1.6726219 \times 10^{-27}kg)(2.55073551883 \times 10^8 m/s)(0.17c)}{(1.60217662 \times 10^{-19} C)(0.75 m)}$$=$$\frac{(1.6726219 \times 2.55073551883 \times 0.17)}{(1.60217662 \times 0.75)} = 0.30513 T$$[/tex]

The magnitude of the required magnetic field is 0.30513 T.

Learn more about magnetic field here:

https://brainly.com/question/19542022

#SPJ11

The term “standard candle” refers to a class of objects that all have closely the same intrinsic luminosity. The intrinsic luminosity of these objects is constant and is independent of the distance between the object and an observer.

This characteristic of standard candles makes them useful in measuring the distances to celestial objects.

Standard candles are objects that all have a constant intrinsic brightness or luminosity. The intrinsic luminosity of a standard candle is constant and is independent of the distance between the object and an observer. This means that if an observer knows the intrinsic brightness of a standard candle and observes it, they can use the apparent brightness of the object to determine the distance between the object and the observer.

This method is useful for measuring the distances to celestial objects because it is often difficult to measure the distances directly.Standard candles are useful for measuring the distances to celestial objects. Astronomers can observe the apparent brightness of a standard candle and compare it to its intrinsic brightness to determine the distance between the object and the observer.

This method is useful for measuring the distances to very distant celestial objects such as galaxies and clusters of galaxies that are beyond the range of direct measurement. There are several types of standard candles, including Cepheid variables, Type Ia supernovae, and RR Lyrae stars.

Each type of standard candle has its own characteristics and is useful for measuring distances to different types of objects. For example, Type Ia supernovae are useful for measuring the distances to very distant galaxies, while Cepheid variables are useful for measuring the distances to nearby galaxies.

Standard candles are an important tool in astronomy, and their use has led to many important discoveries and advances in our understanding of the universe.

The usefulness of standard candles is to measure the distances to celestial objects. Standard candles are objects that have a constant intrinsic brightness or luminosity. This means that if an observer knows the intrinsic brightness of a standard candle and observes it, they can use the apparent brightness of the object to determine the distance between the object and the observer.

To know more about astronomy :

brainly.com/question/5165144

#SPJ11

The distance between the two charged objects is approximately 547 meters, rounded to two significant figures.

To calculate the distance between the two charged objects, we can use Coulomb's law, which states that the magnitude of the electric force between two charged objects is given by the equation:

F = k * (|q1| * |q2|) / [tex]r^2[/tex]

where F is the electric force, k is the electrostatic constant (9.0 x [tex]10^9[/tex] N m^2/C^2), |q1| and |q2| are the magnitudes of the charges, and r is the distance between the charges.

In this case, we have:

F = 3.0 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] N

|q1| = |q2| = 1.0 x [tex]10^{-7}[/tex] C

Plugging these values into the equation, we can solve for r:

3.0 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] N = (9.0 x [tex]10^9[/tex] N m^2/C^2) * (1.0 x [tex]10^{-7}[/tex] C) * (1.0 x [tex]10^{-7}[/tex] C) / r^2

Simplifying the equation:

3.0 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] N = 9.0 x 10^2 N m^2 / r^2

Cross-multiplying and rearranging:

r^2 = (9.0 x 10^2 N m^2) / (3.0 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] N)

[tex]r^2 = 3.0 * 10^5 m^2[/tex]

Taking the square root of both sides:

r = [tex]\sqrt{3.0 * 10^5 m^2}[/tex]

r ≈ 547 m

Therefore, the distance between the two charged objects is approximately 547 meters, rounded to two significant figures.

Learn more about Coulomb's law here:

https://brainly.com/question/506926

#SPJ11

Answer:  the expression for the image distance, di is given as; di = 21.62do.

We can use the mirror equation to write an expression for the image distance, di.

The mirror equation is given as; 1/f = 1/do + 1/di

Where; f is the focal length, do is the object distance from the mirror, di is the image distance from the mirror.

We are given that an object is located at a distance do = 5.1 cm in front of a concave mirror with a radius of curvature r = 21.1 cm.

(a) Expression for the image distance, di: We know that the focal length (f) of a concave mirror is half of its radius of curvature (r).

Therefore; f = r/2 = 21.1/2 = 10.55 cm. Substituting the values of f and do into the mirror equation; 1/f = 1/do + 1/di =1/10.55 = 1/5.1 + 1/di

Multiplying both sides of the equation by (10.55)(5.1)(di), we get;

5.1di = 10.55do(di - 10.55)  

5.1di = 10.55do(di) - 10.55^2(do)

Simplifying the equation by combining like terms, we get;

10.55di - 5.1di = 10.55^2(do)

= (10.55 - 5.1)di = 10.55^2(do)

= 5.45di = 117.76(do)

Therefore, the expression for the image distance, di is given as; di = 21.62do.

Learn more about mirror equation: https://brainly.com/question/25209785

#SPJ11

Hospitals using waves for digitally transmitting patient information address concerns of data security, privacy, compliance, and reliable transmission through complex coding and decoding mechanisms.

Hospitals that use waves to transmit information digitally and employ complex, coded patterns that require decoding at the receiving end are likely addressing the question of data security and patient privacy. In the modern healthcare landscape, the adoption of electronic patient files has become increasingly common, enabling efficient storage and exchange of patient information. However, this convenience also introduces the need for robust measures to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access.

By utilizing waves to transmit information, hospitals can leverage the properties of waves to encode data in complex patterns that are difficult to decipher without the appropriate decoding mechanism. This encoding process adds an additional layer of security to the transmitted information, reducing the risk of unauthorized interception and access. The use of coded patterns helps ensure that only authorized individuals or systems with the correct decoding keys can access and interpret the transmitted data.

The primary concern being addressed here is data security, which includes protecting patient confidentiality and preventing data breaches. Healthcare organizations must adhere to stringent privacy regulations, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, to safeguard patient information. Implementing secure wave-based transmission systems with coded patterns helps hospitals meet these regulatory requirements and maintain patient privacy.

Furthermore, the use of coded patterns also enables efficient and error-free transmission of data. By utilizing complex wave patterns for encoding, hospitals can incorporate error correction mechanisms that enhance the integrity and accuracy of the transmitted information. This ensures that the data received at the receiving end remains intact and reliable, reducing the risk of data loss or corruption during transmission.

In summary, hospitals utilizing waves for digitally transmitting patient information with complex, coded patterns are primarily addressing concerns related to data security, patient privacy, regulatory compliance, and accurate data transmission. By leveraging the properties of waves and employing sophisticated encoding and decoding mechanisms, healthcare organizations can enhance the confidentiality, integrity, and reliability of their electronic patient file systems.

Learn more about data security here :-

https://brainly.com/question/28346754

#SPJ11

The distance between fringes produced by the diffraction grating  grating having 132 lines per centimeter for 652-nm light, if the screen is 1.50 m away is approximately 7.41 × 10^−6 cm.

To determine the distance between fringes produced by a diffraction grating, we can use the formula:

d * sin(θ) = m * λ,

where d is the spacing between adjacent lines on the grating, θ is the angle of diffraction, m is the order of the fringe, and λ is the wavelength of light.

First, we need to calculate the spacing between adjacent lines on the grating. Given that the grating has 132 lines per centimeter, we can convert it to lines per meter:

d = 132 lines/cm * (1 cm / 10 mm) * (1 m / 100 cm)

d = 13.2 lines/m

Next, we can calculate the angle of diffraction. Since the distance between the grating and the screen is much larger than the distance between the slits and the screen, we can assume that the angle of diffraction is small. Therefore, we can use the small-angle approximation:

sin(θ) ≈ tan(θ) ≈ y / L,

where y is the distance between fringes and L is the distance between the grating and the screen.

Rearranging the equation, we have:

y = L * sin(θ).

Given that L = 1.50 m, we need to find sin(θ) using the formula:

sin(θ) = m * λ / d,

where m = 1 (first-order fringe) and λ = 652 nm.

sin(θ) = (1 * 652 × 10^−9 m) / (13.2 lines/m)

sin(θ) ≈ 4.939 × 10^−8 m.

Substituting the values into the equation for y, we get:

y = (1.50 m) * (4.939 × 10^−8 m)

y ≈ 7.41 × 10^−8 m.

To convert the result to centimeters, we multiply by 100:

y ≈ 7.41 × 10^−6 cm.

Therefore, the distance between fringes produced by the diffraction grating is approximately 7.41 × 10^−6 cm.

Learn more about diffraction grating here:

https://brainly.com/question/30409878

#SPJ11

The speed of sound would be:v = 331 m/s + 0.6 m/s/°C x 35°Cv = 351 m/s.The fundamental frequency of the tube is 878 Hz, and the first three overtones are 1755 Hz, 2633 Hz, and 3510 Hz.

The speed of sound at a given temperature can be calculated using the following formula:v = 331 m/s + 0.6 m/s/°C x Twhere:v is the speed of sound in m/sT is the temperature in CelsiusFor the given temperature of 35°C, the speed of sound would be:v = 331 m/s + 0.6 m/s/°C x 35°Cv = 351 m/sTo determine the fundamental frequency of the tube, we can use the following formula:f = v/λwhere:f is the frequency of the sound wavev is the speed of sound in m/sλ is the wavelength in meters.

Since the tube is open at both ends, the wavelength can be determined using the following formula:λ = 2L/nwhere:L is the length of the tube in metersn is the harmonic numberFor the fundamental frequency, n = 1, so:λ = 2 x 0.2 m/1λ = 0.4 mNow we can find the fundamental frequency:f = 351 m/s ÷ 0.4 mf = 878 HzTo find the first three overtones, we can use the formula:nf = nv/2Lwhere:n is the harmonic numberf is the frequency of the sound wavev is the speed of sound in m/sL is the length of the tube in meters.

For the first overtone, n = 2:nf = 2 x 351 m/s ÷ 2 x 0.2 mnf = 1755 HzFor the second overtone, n = 3:nf = 3 x 351 m/s ÷ 2 x 0.2 mnf = 2633 HzFor the third overtone, n = 4:nf = 4 x 351 m/s ÷ 2 x 0.2 mnf = 3510 HzSo the fundamental frequency of the tube is 878 Hz, and the first three overtones are 1755 Hz, 2633 Hz, and 3510 Hz.

Learn more about Frequency here,

https://brainly.com/question/254161

#SPJ11

shows a unity feedback control system R(s). K s-1 s² + 2s + 17 >((s)

Given transfer function of unity feedback control system as follows:

G(s)={K}{s^2+2s+17}

The characteristic equation of the transfer function is

1+G(s)H(s)=0 where H(s) = 1 (unity feedback system).

The root locus of a system is the plot of the roots of the characteristic equation as the gain, K, varies from zero to infinity. To plot the root locus, we need to find the poles and zeros of the transfer function. For the given transfer function, we have two poles at s = -1 ± 4j.

From the root locus, the break-in point occurs at a point where the root locus enters the real axis. In this case, the break-in point occurs at K = 5. To find the angle of departure, we draw a line from the complex conjugate poles to the break-away point (BA).The angle of departure,

θ d = π - 2 tan⁻¹ (4/3) = 1.6609 rad.

The critical damping is obtained when the system is marginally stable. Thus, we need to determine the gain K, when the poles of the transfer function lie on the imaginary axis.For a second-order system with natural frequency, ω n, and damping ratio, ζ, the transfer function can be expressed as:

G(s)={K}{s^2+2ζω_ns+ω_n^2}

The characteristic equation of the system is given as:

s^2+2ζω_ns+ω_n^2=0

When the system is critically damped, ζ = 1. Thus, the transfer function can be written as:

G(s)={K}{s^2+2ω_n s+ω_n^2}

Comparing this with the given transfer function, we can see that:

2ζω_n = 2

ζ = 1$$$$ω_n^2 = 17$$$$\Rightarrow ω_n = \sqrt{17}$$

Therefore, the value of K when the system is critically damped is:

K = {1}{\sqrt{17}} = 0.241

Hence, the values of break-in point, K and angle of departure for the given system are 5, 0.241 and 1.6609 radians respectively.

Learn more about feedback control systems: https://brainly.com/question/18586794

#SPJ11

(a) The magnetic field intensity at the center of the circular current-carrying coil is zero.

(b) The magnetic field intensity B(z) at an altitude z above the center of the circular current-carrying coil is also zero.

(c)  It could be due to cancellation of magnetic field contributions from the current flowing in opposite directions on different parts of the coil.

(d) The current intensity (i) is approximately 63.661 Amperes.

To find the magnetic field intensity at the center of a circular current-carrying coil of radius R, we can use the Biot-Savart law.

The Biot-Savart law states that the magnetic field intensity at a point due to a small element of current-carrying wire is directly proportional to the current, the length of the element, and the sine of the angle between the element and the line connecting the element to the point.

a) At the center of the coil, the magnetic field intensity can be found by integrating the contributions from all the small elements of current around the circumference of the coil.

Let's consider a small element of current dl on the coil at an angle θ from the vertical axis passing through the center. The magnetic field intensity at the center due to this small element is given by:

dB = (μ₀/4π) * (i * dl * sinθ) / r²

where μ₀ is the permeability constant, i is the current intensity, dl is the length element of the coil, r is the distance from the element to the center of the coil, and θ is the angle between the element and the line connecting it to the center.

For a circular coil, dl = R * dθ, where dθ is the infinitesimal angle corresponding to the small element.

Substituting dl = R * dθ and r = R into the equation, we have:

dB = (μ₀/4π) * (i * R * dθ * sinθ) / R²

= (μ₀/4π) * (i * sinθ) * dθ

To find the total magnetic field intensity B(O) at the center of the coil, we integrate this expression over the entire circumference (0 to 2π):

B(O) = ∫[0,2π] (μ₀/4π) * (i * sinθ) * dθ

= (μ₀ * i / 4π) * ∫[0,2π] sinθ dθ

= (μ₀ * i / 4π) * [-cosθ] [0,2π]

= (μ₀ * i / 4π) * (-cos2π - (-cos0))

= (μ₀ * i / 4π) * (1 - 1)

= 0

Therefore, the magnetic field intensity at the center of the circular current-carrying coil is zero.

b) To find the magnetic field intensity B(z) at an altitude z above the center of the coil, we can use a similar approach.

The distance from this element to the point at altitude z above the center is given by (R² + z²)^(1/2).

The magnetic field intensity at the point due to this small element is given by:

dB = (μ₀/4π) * (i * dl * sinθ) / [(R² + z²)^(1/2)]²

= (μ₀/4π) * (i * dl * sinθ) / (R² + z²)

Using dl = R * dθ, we have:

dB = (μ₀/4π) * (i * R * dθ * sinθ) / (R² + z²)

= (μ₀ * i * R * sinθ) / [4π(R² + z²)] * dθ

To find the total magnetic field intensity B(z) at the point, we integrate this expression over the entire circumference (0 to 2π):

B(z) = ∫[0,2π] (μ₀ * i * R * sinθ) / [4π(R² + z²)] * dθ

= (μ₀ * i * R) / [4π(R² + z²)] * ∫[0,2π] sinθ dθ

= (μ₀ * i * R) / [4π(R² + z²)] * [-cosθ] [0,2π]

= (μ₀ * i * R) / [4π(R² + z²)] * (-cos2π - (-cos0))

= 0

Therefore, the magnetic field intensity B(z) at an altitude z above the center of the circular current-carrying coil is also zero.

c) Since both B(O) and B(z) are zero, the magnetic field intensity at the center (z = 0) and any altitude above the center is zero.

It could be due to cancellation of magnetic field contributions from the current flowing in opposite directions on different parts of the coil.

d) For a solenoid with N coils per unit length, the magnetic field intensity B at a location on the central axis can be found using the formula:

B = (μ₀ * i * N) / (R² + z²)^(3/2)

e) To calculate the current intensity required to obtain a magnetic field intensity of roughly 0.01 Tesla inside a solenoid with a length of 20 cm and 1000 turns, we can use the formula derived in part d:

B = (μ₀ * i * N) / (R² + z²)^(3/2)

Given:

B = 0.01 Tesla,

N = 1000 turns,

R = 20 cm = 0.2 m,

z = 0 (inside the solenoid).

Plugging in these values, we have:

0.01 = (μ₀ * i * 1000) / (0.2² + 0²)^(3/2)

0.01 = (μ₀ * i * 1000) / (0.04)^(3/2)

0.01 = (μ₀ * i * 1000) / (0.008)

Simplifying:

i = (0.01 * 0.008) / (μ₀ * 1000)

Using the value of the permeability constant, μ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 T m/A, we can calculate the current intensity i.

To calculate the current intensity (i) using the given formula and the value of the permeability constant (μ₀), we substitute the values:

i = (0.01 * 0.008) / (μ₀ * 1000)

First, let's calculate the value of μ₀:

μ₀ = 4π × [tex]10^{-7[/tex] T m/A

Substituting the known values:

μ₀ = 4 * π * [tex]10^{-7[/tex] T m/A

Now, we can substitute this value into the formula for i:

i = (0.01 * 0.008) / (4 * π * [tex]10^{-7[/tex] T m/A * 1000)

Simplifying:

i = 0.00008 / (4 * π * [tex]10^{-7[/tex] T m/A * 1000)

i = 0.00008 / (4 * 3.14159 * [tex]10^{-7[/tex] T m/A * 1000)

i = 0.00008 / (1.25664 * [tex]10^{-6[/tex] T m/A)

i ≈ 63.661 A

Therefore, the current intensity (i) is approximately 63.661 Amperes.

To learn more about Biot-Savart law visit:

brainly.com/question/30764718

#SPJ11

A)the good estimate of the current supplied by the battery is 1.18 A. B)the magnetic field generated by your phone midway between the ears is 1.75 × 106 T.C)The magnetic field generated by your phone midway between the ears is 1.75 × 106 T.

Part A The formula for estimating the current supplied by the battery is:

Power (P) = Potential (V) × Current (I)I = P / V

Given that the transmission power P of the cell phone is about 2.0 W, and the typical cell phone battery supplies a 1.7 V potential, we can estimate the current supplied by the battery as follows:I = P / V = 2.0 W / 1.7 V = 1.18 A

Therefore, the good estimate of the current supplied by the battery is 1.18 A.

Part B

The formula for estimating the magnetic field generated by a current loop is:B = (μ0 / 4π) × (2IR2 / (R2 + x2)3/2)

Given that the width of your head is about 20 cm, and the diameter of the phone speaker that goes next to your ear is 3.0 cm, we can estimate the magnetic field generated by your phone midway between the ears as follows:

R = 1.5 cm = 0.015 mI = 1.18 AR2 = (0.5 × 0.03 m)2 = 0.000225 m2x = 0.1 m = 10 cm = 0.1 mμ0 = 4π × 10-7 T·m/Aμ0 / 4π = 10-7 T·m/A / πB = (μ0 / 4π) × (2IR2 / (R2 + x2)3/2) = (10-7 T·m/A / π) × (2 × 1.18 A × 0.000225 m2 / (0.000225 m2 + 0.12 m2)3/2) = 1.75 × 106 T

Therefore, the magnetic field generated by your phone midway between the ears is 1.75 × 106 T.

Part C

The earth's field, which is about 50 μT, is much weaker than the magnetic field generated by your phone. The magnetic field generated by your phone midway between the ears is about 35,000 times stronger than the earth's field, which means that it could potentially have adverse effects on your health if you are exposed to it for long periods of time.

Therefore, it is recommended to minimize your exposure to the magnetic field generated by your phone as much as possible.

Know more about magnetic field here,

https://brainly.com/question/14848188

#SPJ11

To determine the new volume of the gas when the temperature and pressure change, we can use the combined gas law equation, which relates the initial and final states of a gas:

(P₁ * V₁) / (T₁) = (P₂ * V₂) / (T₂)

Given:

Initial pressure (P₁) = 110 kPa

Initial temperature (T₁) = 30 °C = 30 + 273.15 K

Initial volume (V₁) = 2 L

Final pressure (P₂) = 440 kPa

Final temperature (T₂) = 80 °C = 80 + 273.15 K

New volume (V₂) = ?

Substituting the given values into the combined gas law equation, we have:

(110 * 2) / (30 + 273.15) = (440 * V₂) / (80 + 273.15)

Simplifying the equation further, we can solve for V₂:

(220 / 303.15) = (440 * V₂) / (353.15)

Now, we can calculate the new volume by rearranging the equation:

V₂ = (220 / 303.15) * (353.15 / 440)

By performing the calculations, we can find the value of V₂, which represents the new volume of the gas after the change in temperature and pressure.

Learn more about pressure here:-

brainly.com/question/30351725

#SPJ11

The missing quantity is the acceleration (a) of the object's vertical motion. The negative sign indicates that the object is undergoing downward acceleration, which is expected for an object in free fall under the influence of gravity.

From the given information, we can identify the following known quantities:

xi = 1 meter (initial position)

xf = 0 meter (final position)

vi = 0 m/s (initial velocity)

∆t = 1 second (change in time)

Using the kinematic equation:

xf = xi + vit + (1/2)at^2

Substituting the known values:

0 = 1 + 0 + (1/2)a(1)^2

Simplifying the equation:

0 = 1 + (1/2)a

Solving for 'a':

a = -2 m/s^2

Note: The final velocity (vf) is not necessary to solve this problem since we are only interested in the object's motion while falling, not at the moment it hits the ground.

Learn more about initial velocityhere:

https://brainly.com/question/28395671

#SPJ11

The path length difference between the light traveling from each slit for the dark fringe right next to the bright central maximum is half a wavelength (λ/2) option (b).

When light waves from the two slits arrive at the screen in phase (that is, their peaks and troughs coincide), a bright fringe is formed. When the waves from the two slits arrive at the screen out of phase (that is, a peak of one wave coincides with a trough of the other), they cancel each other out and a dark fringe is formed. In other words, the dark fringes are the result of destructive interference between the two waves. At a dark fringe, the path difference between the two waves is an odd multiple of half a wavelength (λ/2).

Therefore, the path length difference between the light traveling from each slit for the dark fringe right next to the bright central maximum is half a wavelength (λ/2). Hence, the correct option is b.

Learn more about path length difference https://brainly.com/question/12645865

#SPJ11

The antenna gain of a microstrip patch antenna operating at 2.45 GHz and with an effective antenna aperture of 80 cm^2 was calculated to be 6.34 dBi using the formula G(dBi) = 10 log10(4πAeff/λ^2), where λ is the wavelength.

The antenna gain in dBi can be calculated using the following formula:

G(dBi) = 10 log10(4πAeff/λ^2)

where λ is the wavelength of the signal, which can be calculated as λ = c/f, where c is the speed of light and f is the frequency of the signal.

At a frequency of 2.45 GHz, the wavelength is λ = c/f = 3e8 m/s / 2.45e9 Hz = 0.122 m.

The effective antenna aperture is given as Aeff = 80 cm^2 = 0.008 m^2.

Therefore, the gain of the microstrip patch antenna in dBi can be calculated as:

G(dBi) = 10 log10(4π(0.008 m^2)/(0.122 m)^2) = 6.34 dBi

Hence, the antenna gain of the microstrip patch antenna is 6.34 dBi.

To know more about antenna gain, visit:
brainly.com/question/32796049
#SPJ11

The closest distance that the student can see clearly without vision correction is approximately 47.2 cm.

The prescription for the eyeglasses is given in diopters, which represents the optical power of the lenses. The formula relating the optical power (P) to the distance of closest clear vision (D) is D = 1/P, where D is measured in meters. To convert the prescription from diopters to meters, we divide 1 by the prescription value: D = 1/2.11 = 0.4739 meters.

Since the question asks for the answer in centimeters, we need to convert the distance from meters to centimeters. There are 100 centimeters in a meter, so multiplying the distance by 100 gives us: D = 0.4739 x 100 = 47.39 cm.

However, the question asks for the closest distance with only one digit to the right of the decimal point. To round the answer to the nearest tenth, we get the final result of approximately 47.2 cm. Therefore, the student can see clearly without vision correction up to a distance of about 47.2 cm.

Learn more about lenses here:

https://brainly.com/question/29834071

#SPJ11

The kinetic energy per unit length of the string is given by the equation: kinetic energy per unit length = 0.5 × (linear mass density) × (velocity)². The work done on the string is equal to the change in kinetic energy, the wave's energy is the sum of its potential energy and kinetic energy, and both the potential and kinetic energies are measured in joules per meter (J/m).

The work done on the string is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the string. Since the string is raised at a speed of 13 m/s for a time of 0.016 s, the work done is given by the equation: work = force × distance = (mass × acceleration) × distance = (linear mass density × length × acceleration) × distance = (0.067 kg/m × length × 13 m/s²) × distance. The units of work are joules (J).

The energy of the wave is equal to the sum of its potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential energy of the wave is due to the displacement of the string from its equilibrium position. The potential energy per unit length of the string is given by the equation: potential energy per unit length = 0.5 × (linear mass density) × (amplitude)² × (angular frequency)², where the amplitude is the maximum displacement of the string and the angular frequency is the rate at which the wave oscillates. The units of potential energy are joules per meter (J/m).

The kinetic energy of the wave is due to the motion of the string as it oscillates. The kinetic energy per unit length of the string is given by the equation: kinetic energy per unit length = 0.5 × (linear mass density) × (velocity)². The units of kinetic energy are also joules per meter (J/m).

Learn more about kinetic energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/999862

#SPJ11

The wires are 7.5 m apart from each other.

The force per unit length between the two wires can be determined using Ampere’s law. 1

The attractive force per unit length is given by the formula:

F/l = μ0 * I1 * I2 / (2πd)

Where,F/l = force per unit length

μ0 = permeability of free space

I1 = current in wire 1

I2 = current in wire 2

d = distance between the two wires

Substitute the given values:

F/l = (4.00 x 10-7 T m A-1) * (300 A) * (5.00 A) / (2πd)

Simplify and solve for d:d = (4.00 x 10-7 T m A-1) * (300 A) * (5.00 A) / (2π * 4.00 x 10-10 N m2 A-2) = 7.54 m

Therefore, the wires are 7.5 m apart from each other.

Know more about force here,

https://brainly.com/question/30507236

#SPJ11

The answers to the given question are:(a) Angle of incidence at top of glass = 23.0°.(b) Angle of refraction at top of glass = 16.5°.(c) Angle of incidence at bottom of glass = 16.5°.(d) Angle of refraction at bottom of glass = 24.8°.

Given the parameters of the question are:A ray of light strikes a flat, 2.00-cm-thick block of glass (n = 1.50 ) at an angle of 23.0° with the normal. The question asks us to calculate the following parameters:Angle of incidence at top of glass.Angle of refraction at top of glass.Angle of incidence at bottom of glass.Angle of refraction at bottom of glass.Tracing the light beam through the glass:

For tracing the light beam through the glass, the following things need to be calculated:The angle of incidence, θ1 = 23.0°.The thickness of the glass block, t = 2.00 cm.The refractive index of the glass block, n = 1.50.Now, for tracing the light beam through the glass, we will use the following formulas, which are based on Snell's law:n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2where, n1 = refractive index of medium 1.θ1 = angle of incidence of medium 1.n2 = refractive index of medium 2.θ2 = angle of refraction of medium 2.Calculating the Angle of incidence at top of glass:The angle of incidence at the top of the glass can be calculated by using the following formula:Angle of incidence at the top of glass = θ1 = 23.0°.So, the angle of incidence at the top of glass is 23.0°.

Calculating the Angle of refraction at top of glass:The angle of refraction at the top of the glass can be calculated by using the following formula:n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2sinθ2 = (n1/n2)sinθ1where, n1 = 1 (refractive index of air).n2 = 1.50 (refractive index of the glass).θ1 = 23.0°.Plugging in the values in the above formula, we get:sinθ2 = (1/1.5)sin23.0°sinθ2 = 0.2757θ2 = sin-1(0.2757)θ2 = 16.5°So, the angle of refraction at the top of the glass is 16.5°.

Calculating the Angle of incidence at the bottom of glass:The angle of incidence at the bottom of the glass can be calculated by using the following formula:Angle of incidence at the bottom of glass = θ2 = 16.5°.So, the angle of incidence at the bottom of the glass is 16.5°.Calculating the Angle of refraction at bottom of glass:The angle of refraction at the bottom of the glass can be calculated by using the following formula:n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2sinθ1 = (n2/n1)sinθ2where, n1 = 1 (refractive index of air).n2 = 1.50 (refractive index of the glass).θ2 = 16.5°.

Plugging in the values in the above formula, we get:sinθ1 = (1.5/1)sin16.5°sinθ1 = 0.4122θ1 = sin-1(0.4122)θ1 = 24.8°So, the angle of refraction at the bottom of the glass is 24.8°.Therefore, the answers to the given question are:(a) Angle of incidence at top of glass = 23.0°.(b) Angle of refraction at top of glass = 16.5°.(c) Angle of incidence at bottom of glass = 16.5°.(d) Angle of refraction at bottom of glass = 24.8°.

Learn more about refraction here,

https://brainly.com/question/27932095

#SPJ11

Given,Mass of the larger bucket, m1= 19.9 kgMass of the smaller bucket, m2 = 12.3 kgMass of the pulley, mp = 7.13 kgRadius of the pulley, rp = 0.250 mHeight of the larger bucket, d0 = 1.75 m.

Let, v be the velocity with which the larger bucket will hit the ground.To findThe speed v with which the larger bucket will hit the ground.So, we can use the conservation of energy equation. According to the law of conservation of energy,Total energy at any instant = Total energy at any other instant.

Given that the buckets are at rest initially, so, their initial potential energy is, Ui = m1gd0Where,g is the acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²The final kinetic energy of the two buckets will be,Kf = (m1 + m2)v²/2The final potential energy of the two buckets will be,Uf = (m1 + m2)ghWhere, h is the height from the ground at which the larger bucket hits the ground.The final potential energy of the pulley will beUf = (1/2)Iω²Where I is the moment of inertia of the pulley and ω is the angular velocity of the pulley.

Since the rope does not slip on the pulley, the distance covered by the larger bucket will be twice the distance covered by the smaller bucket.Distance covered by the smaller bucket = d0 / 2 = 0.875 mDistance covered by the larger bucket = d0 = 1.75 mLet T be the tension in the rope.Then, the equations of motion for the two buckets will be,m1g - T = m1a       ...(1)T - m2g = m2a        ...(2)The acceleration of the two buckets is the same. So, adding equations (1) and (2), we get,m1g - m2g = (m1 + m2)a   ...(3)The tension T in the rope is given by,T = mpag / (m1 + m2 + mp)  ... (4)Now, substituting equation (4) in equation (1), we get,m1g - mpag / (m1 + m2 + mp) = m1a ...(5)Substituting equation (5) in equation (3), we get,(m1 - m2)g = (m1 + m2)av = g(m1 - m2) / (m1 + m2) * 1.75 m ...(6)Substituting equation (4) in equation (6), we get,v = (2 * g * d0 * m2 * (m1 + mp)) / ((m1 + m2)² * rp²)v = (2 * 9.8 * 1.75 * 12.3 * (19.9 + 7.13)) / ((19.9 + 12.3)² * (0.250)²)Therefore, the velocity with which the larger bucket will hit the ground is 15.0 m/s.

Learn more on velocity here:

brainly.in/question/11384416

#SPJ11

A fish takes the bait and pulls on the line with a force of 2.5 N and in 0.40 seconds, the fish pulls approximately 1.34 meters of line from the fishing reel.

The torque exerted on the fishing reel can be calculated using the equation τ = Iα, where τ is the torque, I is the moment of inertia, and α is the angular acceleration. The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder is given by I = (1/2)mr², where m is the mass and r is the radius.

Substituting the given values, we have τ = (1/2)(0.82 kg)(0.060 m)²α. The torque exerted on the reel is equal to the force applied by the fish multiplied by the radius of the reel, so τ = (2.5 N)(0.060 m).

Setting these two expressions for torque equal to each other, we have (1/2)(0.82 kg)(0.060 m)²α = (2.5 N)(0.060 m). Simplifying and solving for α, we find α ≈ 21 rad/s². Therefore, the angular acceleration of the fishing reel is approximately 21 rad/s².

To calculate the amount of line pulled by the fish in 0.40 seconds, we need to consider the angular displacement. The angular displacement (θ) can be calculated using the equation θ = (1/2)αt², where α is the angular acceleration and t is the time.

Substituting the given values, we have θ = (1/2)(21 rad/s²)(0.40 s)². Simplifying, we find θ ≈ 0.134 radians.

The length of line pulled from the reel can be calculated using the formula l = rθ, where l is the length of the line and r is the radius of the reel. Substituting the given values, we have l = (0.060 m)(0.134 radians), which gives us l ≈ 0.008 meters or 1.34 meters (rounded to two significant figures).

Learn more about torque here:

https://brainly.com/question/31323759

#SPJ11

The time period of oscillations of a block hanging from a vertical spring can be found using the equation:

T = 2π√(m/k)

where T is the time period, m is the mass of the block, and k is the spring constant.

When the spring is stretched additionally from the new equilibrium, the displacement of the block increases. Let's denote this additional displacement as Δx.

The new effective spring constant, taking into account the additional displacement, can be calculated using Hooke's Law:

k' = k/Δx

Substituting this new effective spring constant into the equation for the time period, we have:

T = 2π√(m/k')

T = 2π√(m/(k/Δx))

T = 2π√(mΔx/k)

Therefore, the time period of oscillations when the spring is stretched additionally from the new equilibrium is given by 2π√(mΔx/k).

To know more about time period .

https://brainly.com/question/31824035

#SPJ11

After each half-life, approximately 50% of the pennies were removed. This phenomenon can be explained by the nature of radioactive decay, where half of the unstable atoms decay and transform into stable atoms over a specific period.

1. Radioactive decay: The removal of pennies after each half-life can be likened to the process of radioactive decay, where unstable atomic nuclei undergo a transformation into stable nuclei by emitting radiation.

2. Half-life: The half-life is the time required for half of the unstable atoms to decay. In this context, after each half-life, 50% of the pennies are removed.

3. Probability: The removal of pennies is based on the probability of individual atoms decaying. With each half-life, the probability remains constant, resulting in approximately 50% of the remaining pennies decaying.

4. Independent decay: The decay of each individual penny is independent of other pennies. Therefore, even though the initial number of pennies may decrease after each half-life, the percentage of pennies removed remains consistent.

5. Cumulative effect: Over multiple half-lives, the number of pennies removed accumulates. For example, after the first half-life, 50% of the pennies are removed, leaving half of the initial quantity. After the second half-life, 50% of the remaining pennies are removed again, resulting in 25% of the initial quantity remaining, and so on.

6. Exponential decay: The decay of pennies follows an exponential decay curve, with the percentage of pennies removed decreasing over time. However, after each individual half-life, the removal rate remains constant at around 50%.

In conclusion, the approximate removal of 50% of the pennies after each half-life is attributed to the nature of radioactive decay, where the probability of decay remains constant, resulting in a consistent removal rate.

For more such questions on decay, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/27420492

#SPJ8

The change in internal energy in your system when lifting a 100 N barbell a total distance of 0.5 meters during 8 reps quickly is approximately 400 Joules.

ΔU = W + Q

Where ΔU is the change in internal energy, W is the work done on the system, and Q is the heat transfer into or out of the system.

In this case, there is no heat transfer mentioned, so Q is assumed to be zero.

The work done on the system can be calculated by multiplying the force applied (the weight of the barbell) by the distance moved.

In this case, the force applied is 100 N and the distance moved is 0.5 meters.

Therefore, the work done on the system for one repetition is:

W = (100 N) * (0.5 m) = 50 J

Since you perform 8 repetitions, the total work done on the system is:

[tex]W_{total}[/tex] = 8 * 50 J = 400 J

Therefore, the change in internal energy in your system is 400 Joules (J).

To learn more about internal energy visit:

brainly.com/question/3453679

#SPJ11