The statement a change in inflationary expectations resulting from events such as international trade embargoes or major changes in federal reserve policy will result in a shift in the sml is true because What individuals and businesses anticipate will happen to consumer prices.
In the future is referred to as inflation expectations. (usually one year ahead). It can be challenging to reverse a greater rate of inflation once it has been established. If consumers anticipate higher prices, this could lead to more salary claims and higher prices.
Additionally, other studies show that a variety of factors, including oil prices, commodity prices, historical inflation, the health of the economy, and monetary policy decisions, have an impact on inflation expectations. For instance, some earlier research indicates that past inflation has a significant impact on long-term inflation predictions.
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there is often limited capacity relative to demand in the early growth period of an industry because:
There is often limited capacity relative to demand in the early growth period of an industry because the industry is still in its infancy and has not yet established a mature infrastructure to support high levels of production and distribution.
Capacity is the maximum amount or number of things that something can produce or contain. In business, capacity refers to the ability of a company or organization to produce goods or services to meet consumer demand. Capacity is a significant factor in the profitability and competitiveness of a company. In the early growth phase of an industry, it's common for there to be a gap between the demand for goods or services and the industry's capacity to produce them.
This is because the industry is still in its early stages of development and has yet to establish a mature infrastructure to support high levels of production and distribution. As a result, there is often limited capacity relative to demand in the early growth period of an industry.
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in order for a monopolist to be earning a profit, price must be greater than group of answer choices average total cost. marginal revenue. total cost. marginal cost.
In order for a monopolist to be earning a profit, price must be greater than average total cost.
In order for a monopolist to be earning a profit, the price must be greater than the marginal cost.
What is a Monopoly?
A monopoly is a condition where there is only one producer or seller of a commodity. Monopolies can develop due to various reasons such as economies of scale, government regulations, and barriers to entry such as patents, copyrights, and licensing agreements. Monopolies can be characterized by price-setting power where they can either charge a higher price to generate more profits or lower the price to increase demand for their product.A monopolist maximizes profit by equating the marginal cost to marginal revenue. Marginal cost is the additional cost of producing one extra unit of a commodity while marginal revenue is the additional revenue generated by selling one extra unit of a commodity. In order to maximize profit, a monopolist should produce up to the point where marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue.In order for a monopolist to earn a profit, the price must be greater than the marginal cost. The average total cost is the total cost of production divided by the total output. Average total cost does not have any bearing on the pricing decision of a monopolist.
Hence, the correct answer is that price must be greater than the marginal cost.
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identify a recruiting approach that enables an organization to combine the elements of both internal and external methods of recruiting
One recruiting approach that enables an organization to combine the elements of both internal and external methods of recruiting is a "promote from within" program.
Under this approach, the organization first seeks to fill job openings with internal candidates who have the necessary skills and qualifications. This promotes employee loyalty and career advancement opportunities, while also benefiting the organization by allowing it to retain talented and experienced employees.
However, if suitable internal candidates are not available or do not meet the required qualifications, the organization can then look externally to fill the position. This allows the organization to tap into a wider pool of talent and potentially bring in fresh perspectives and ideas.
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in a period of rising prices, fifo will have group of answer choices lower net income than lifo. lower cost of goods sold than lifo. lower income tax expense than lifo. lower net purchases than lifo.
When prices are increasing, the FIFO method has a lower net income than the LIFO method.
The first-in, first-out (FIFO) and last-in, first-out (LIFO) are two methods used in inventory management to account for the cost of goods sold (COGS). LIFO assumes that the last items bought are the first ones to be sold, while FIFO assumes that the first items bought are the first ones to be sold.As the cost of goods increases, LIFO will produce a higher COGS and, as a result, a lower net income than FIFO.
When the price level increases, the LIFO method will result in a higher COGS, lower taxable income, and a lower tax payment, which is why many firms use it. As a result, when costs are increasing, the FIFO method is superior because it results in a lower COGS and a higher taxable income.
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according to keynes, what type of economic policy is needed to return the economy to full employment when there is either a recessionary or inflationary gap?
The kind of economic policy expected to return the economy to full business when there is either a recessionary or inflationary gap a recessionary gap requires more government spending and an inflationary gap requires less government spending. option (B) is correct.
A recessionary gap is a situation in which the balance level of genuine Gross domestic product is not exactly the full business level. In this condition, the total interest is lower and there is a lack of total interest.
An inflationary gap happens when the balance level of the genuine Gross domestic product is more noteworthy than the full work level. There is a more elevated level of the total interest in the economy, so there is a need to bring down government spending or increase government rates to decrease total interest.
Therefore, option (B) is correct.
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This question is not complete, Here I am attaching the complete question:
According to Keynes, what type of economic policy is needed to return the economy to full employment when there is either a recessionary or inflationary gap?
A. A recessionary gap requires less government spending as does an inflationary gap.
B. A recessionary gap requires more government spending and an inflationary gap requires less government spending.
C. A recessionary gap requires less government spending and an inflationary gap requires more government spending.
D. A recessionary gap requires more government spending as does an inflationary gap.
business cycles are: a. sequences of expansions and contractions of economic activity b. ups and downs in the stock market c. fluctuations in the currency exchange markets d. long-run changes in tfp
What are business cycles?Business cycles are alternating patterns of economic expansion and contraction. These cycles include periods of economic growth and prosperity, followed by periods of economic stagnation, decline, or recession.
During an economic expansion, the economy grows, jobs are created, and incomes rise. During a recession, on the other hand, the economy contracts, jobs are lost, and incomes fall.An economic expansion occurs when the economy is growing, jobs are being created, and incomes are rising. A recession occurs when the economy is contracting, jobs are being lost, and incomes are falling. Fluctuations in the currency exchange markets and ups and downs in the stock market are both examples of the effects of business cycles.
These events are caused by the fluctuations in the economy, which are part of the business cycle. The business cycle is affected by many factors, including government policies, technological change, consumer spending, and international trade.
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consider the following story: province ranch, an industry leading provider in vehicle insurance, recently expanded to cover motorhomes. province ranch had concerns that the most likely motorhome insurance customers are those who drive their motorhomes in high-density traffic areas (thus exposing them to the most damage on the road), because they would benefit most from insurance coverage. since province ranch is unable to distinguish perfectly between high-risk and low-risk areas, it raised its motorhome premiums in an effort to account for the riskier drivers. the economic problem in this story is known as: screening adverse selection signaling moral hazard
Adverse selection is the name for the economic issue in this narrative. It increased its motorhome insurance rates to reflect the riskier drivers.
The social science of economics examines how products and services are made, distributed, and consumed. Economics is the study of scarcity and its effects on resource use, the creation of commodities and services, the expansion of production and welfare over time, as well as a host of other intricate issues of utmost significance to society. Economics is the study of how people allocate limited resources for production, distribution, and consumption among individual and community uses. Economics has two subfields: macroeconomics and microeconomics. The basic objective of economics is to maximize exchange and production efficiency. A 20th-century definition of economics by English economist Lionel Robbins was "the field that evaluates human behavior as a link between scarce resources that have alternative uses and (given) purposes."
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a project manager hires a few new coders to help speed up the new software project and deliver the package on time to an important client. the manager has engaged in
A project manager hires a few new coders to help speed up the new software project and deliver the package on time to an important client. the manager has engaged in Staffing
Which is one of the key functions of management. Staffing involves identifying the organization's human resource requirements, recruiting potential employees, selecting the best candidates, training and developing them, and managing their performance.
By hiring new coders, the project manager has addressed the staffing needs of the project and taken steps to ensure the timely delivery of the software package to the client. Staffing is a crucial function in the management process as it ensures that an organization has the right people in the right positions to achieve its goals and objectives.
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what are the key components that argosy must put into place to create an environment for a successful bi and analytics program? how would this be done?
To create a successful BI and Analytics program, Argosy should put in place a comprehensive data architecture, data governance framework, and analytics tools and capabilities.
In order to create an environment for a successful BI and analytics program, Argosy must put into place several key components.
The first component is an understanding of the data that Argosy has available. This involves creating a comprehensive inventory of the organization’s data sources and determining what data is available, and how it can be used to support BI and analytics initiatives.
The second component is the development of an effective data governance framework. This framework should include data stewardship, roles and responsibilities, as well as policies and procedures for collecting, managing, and using data.
The third component is the implementation of an analytics platform. This platform should include a data warehouse, an ETL process, and a data visualization tool. The platform should be able to store, retrieve, and process data in order to provide insights and inform decision-making.
The fourth component is the development of a BI strategy. This includes defining objectives and setting goals for the BI program. It should also include a road map for the implementation of the program, and should define the roles and responsibilities for the staff involved in the program.
Finally, Argosy must ensure that the people involved in the program have the appropriate skills and
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when recording long-term notes receivable, which of the following statements is correct? a.long-term notes receivable are recorded at the present value of the property, goods, or services or the present value of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable. b.long-term notes receivable are recorded at the fair value of the property, goods, or services or the fair value of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable. c.long-term notes receivable are recorded at the cost of the property, goods, or services or the present value of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable. d.long-term notes receivable are recorded at the present value of the property, goods, or services or the cost of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable.
When recording long-term notes receivable, B. Long-term notes receivable are recorded at the fair value of the property, goods, or services or the fair value of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable.
When accounting for long-term notes receivable, it is important to determine the value at which they should be recorded. This is done by comparing the fair value of the property, goods, or services that the note is linked to with the fair value of the note receivable itself. fair value is the most accurate representation of an asset's worth in the marketplace.
By recording long-term notes receivable at fair value, businesses can ensure that their financial statements accurately represent the value of the assets they hold. This allows for better decision-making and more accurate assessments of financial health. Additionally, recording at fair value ensures that the transaction is recorded consistently allowing for easier comparisons with other financial information.
In summary, long-term notes receivable should be recorded at the fair value of the property, goods, or services, or the fair value of the note receivable, whichever is more clearly determinable. This practice ensures accuracy and consistency in financial reporting, ultimately helping businesses make better decisions based on their financial position. Therefore the correct option is B
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steve is a single man who lives by himself. he has one job as a computer technician and takes the standard deduction. what is his 2021 form w-4 likely to report? a.claim 2 allowances b.check the box in step 2(c) to reflect his job c.check the single box and report himself as a single dependent on step 3 d.he can claim any number of withholding allowances that he believes will leave him with proper withholding. e.check the single box in step 1 only
Based on the given information, it is likely that Steve will check the single box in step 1 and claim 2 allowances in step 3 of his 2021 form W-4.
The single box indicates that he is not married and has no dependents. As he takes the standard deduction, he would not need to check the box in step 2(c) to reflect his job. Claiming 2 allowances in step 3 would be appropriate for someone in Steve's situation, as he is single and has only one job.
This would ensure that the appropriate amount of federal income tax is withheld from his paycheck throughout the year. However, Steve could also choose to claim a different number of allowances if he believes it would result in proper withholding.
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cirice corporation is considering opening a branch in another state. the operating cash flow will be $202,900 a year. the project will require new equipment costing $586,000 that would be depreciated on a straight-line basis to zero over the 4-year life of the project. the equipment will have a market value of $173,000 at the end of the project. the project requires an initial investment of $40,000 in net working capital, which will be recovered at the end of the project. the tax rate is 21 percent. what is the project's irr?
Based on the mentioned set of conditions The project's Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is calculated to be approximately around 14.3%.
To calculate the project's IRR, we need to first calculate the cash flows for each year of the project.
Year 0:
Initial investment: -$40,000
Years 1-4:
Operating cash flow: $202,900
Depreciation expense: $586,000 / 4 = -$146,500
Taxable income: $202,900 - $146,500 = $56,400
Taxes (at 21%): -$11,844
Net cash flow: $202,900 - $146,500 - $11,844 = $44,556
Year 4:
Sale of equipment: $173,000 - ($586,000 / 4) = $28,500
Tax on sale (at 21%): -$5,985
Net cash flow: $173,000 - $5,985 - $586,000 / 4 = $135,515
Now, we can calculate the IRR using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software. The IRR for this project is approximately 14.3%.
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u.s. corporations a. are not allowed to issue bearer bonds b. are allowed to issue bearer bonds to non-u.s. citizens c. none of the options d. are allowed to issue treasury bonds but not t-bills
U.S. corporations are not allowed to issue bearer bonds. The correct answer is option A.
What is a bearer bond?Bearer bond is a negotiable financial instrument with no recording of ownership, and the security is payable to whoever physically holds it. It is also referred to as a coupon bond.
They are generally only issued by foreign corporations since the SEC has restrictions in the United States for their issuance. As a result, U.S. companies are not allowed to issue bearer bonds.
Why do U.S. corporations not issue bearer bonds?Since the SEC has limitations on their issuance in the United States, U.S. companies are not allowed to issue bearer bonds. Only foreign corporations can issue bearer bonds. Thus, the right choice is option a. are not allowed to issue bearer bonds.
What are treasury bonds and t-bills?Treasury bonds, often known as T-bonds, are long-term debt securities with maturities of more than ten years issued by the US government. T-bills, on the other hand, are short-term securities with maturities of less than one year.
The US Department of the Treasury issues both of them. U.S. corporations are allowed to issue treasury bonds but not t-bills.
Therefore, the option that says that U.S. corporations are allowed to issue treasury bonds but not t-bills is incorrect, making option d wrong as well. The correct answer is option c.
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given the information below, what is the gross profit? sales revenue $ 345,000 accounts receivable 55,000 ending inventory 112,000 cost of goods sold 239,000 sales returns 22,000 multiple choice $84,000 $211,000 $87,000 $106,000
Based on the given information, the gross profit is $84,000. Therefore, the correct option is 1.
Gross profit refers to the difference between a company's total revenue and its total cost of goods sold, which is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the total revenue. In the given case,
Sales revenue $ 345,000
Accounts receivable 55,000
Ending inventory 112,000
Cost of goods sold 239,000
Sales returns 22,000
Based on the given information, the gross profit can be calculated as follows:1. Subtract sales returns from sales revenue: $345,000 - $22,000 = $323,000 (adjusted sales revenue)
2. Subtract cost of goods sold from adjusted sales revenue: $323,000 - $239,000 = $84,000
The gross profit is $84,000. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
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how did world war ii bring an end to the great depression? group of answer choices it encouraged economic voluntarism. it created higher deficit spending levels. it increased the demand for consumer prices. production of consumer goods like cars boomed during the war
Production of consumer goods like cars boomed during the second world war bought an end to the great depression. Thus, Option (D) is the correct answer.
Although manufacturing, employment opportunities, etc. helped to mobilize economy which led to widespread economic prosperity around the globe.
World War II thus brought the unparalleled prosperity of the postwar era, allowing for wartime inflation and shortages, the new employment opportunities and higher incomes produced increased consumer spending and rising living standards.
Economic mobilization not only lead to widespread prosperity, rising living standards, and new opportunities, but also helped to enhance and institutionalize the economic and political power of big business, big farming, and big labor.
However, the great war had a multifaceted impact on the global economy, though it lifted the Great Depression of the 1930s.
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(table: variable costs for pool cleaning) use table: variable costs for pool cleaning. during the summer, elijah runs a pool cleaning service, and pool cleaning is a perfectly competitive industry. assume that costs are constant in each interval; so, for example, the marginal cost of cleaning each pool from 1 through 10 is $10. also assume that he can only clean the quantities of pools given in the table (and not numbers in between). his only fixed cost is $1,000 for the pool cleaning equipment. his variable costs include fuel, his time, and other everyday pool supplies. if the price of cleaning a pool is $60, how much is elijah's total revenue at the profit-maximizing output?
To find Elijah's total revenue at the profit-maximizing output, we first need to determine the profit-maximizing output level. This is the level of output at which Elijah's marginal revenue equals his marginal cost.
To calculate Elijah's marginal cost, we can use the information in the table of variable costs for pool cleaning.
Number of Pools Variable Cost
1-10 $10
11-20 $9
21-30 $8
31-40 $7
41-50 $6
51-60 $5
We can see from the table that the marginal cost of cleaning each pool from 1-10 is $10, from 11-20 is $9, and so on. To find the total variable cost for each interval, we can simply multiply the variable cost per pool by the number of pools in that interval.
For example, the total variable cost of cleaning 1-10 pools is $100 ($10 per pool x 10 pools). The total variable cost of cleaning 11-20 pools is $180 ($9 per pool x 20 pools), and so on.
To find the profit-maximizing output level, we need to compare Elijah's marginal revenue to his marginal cost. Since Elijah operates in a perfectly competitive market, he can sell each pool cleaning at the market price of $60.
We can see from the table that the total variable cost of cleaning 21-30 pools is $240. At this output level, Elijah's marginal cost is $8 (the variable cost of cleaning each additional pool after the 20th). Since the market price is $60, Elijah's marginal revenue is also $60.
Since Elijah's marginal revenue ($60) is greater than his marginal cost ($8), he should continue to increase his output level until his marginal revenue equals his marginal cost. This occurs at the output level of 30 pools.
At this output level, Elijah's total variable cost is $270 ($100 + $180 + $240), and his total revenue is $1,800 (30 pools x $60 per pool). Therefore, Elijah's total profit is $1,530 ($1,800 - $270).
In summary, at the profit-maximizing output level of 30 pools, Elijah's total revenue is $1,800.
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which of the following statements regarding ppos is true? a)ppos do not use managed care procedures. b)health care services offered by in-network providers are contracted between the ppo and the providers. c)ppos do not afford access to a primary care physician. d)health care services offered by out-out-network providers have lower deductibles and coinsurance than those offered by in-network providers.
PPOs encourage members to use in-network providers by offering lower costs for services provided by those providers. Health care services offered by in-network providers are contracted between the PPO and the providers. The correct answer is option: b.
PPO stands for Preferred Provider Organization, which is a type of managed care health insurance plan that contracts with medical providers, such as hospitals and doctors, to create a network of participating providers. Out-of-network services are typically more expensive and may have higher deductibles and coinsurance. PPOs do not require members to choose a primary care physician and offer more flexibility in choosing health care providers compared to other managed care plans like HMOs. Option: b is correct.
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industries that are made up of many competing producers, each selling a differentiated product, and whose firms earn zero economic profits in the long run are:
The Industries that are made up of many "competing-producers", each selling a differentiated product, and whose firms earn zero economic profits in the long run are called monopolistic competition.
In a monopolistic competitive-market, each firm produces a slightly different product that is not perfect substitutes for its competitors' products.
This allows firms to have some pricing power, but they still face competition from other firms offering similar products.
As a result, firms cannot charge higher prices without losing market share to their competitors, which keeps profits in check in the long run.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
The industries that are made up of many competing producers, each selling a differentiated product, and whose firms earn zero economic profits in the long run are called as ?
the chart shows the risk category, who is primarily responsible for the risk, the maximum possible and maximum probable loss, the risk severity score untreated and the risk severity score after risk management measures are applied. the chart katherine created is called a
The chart Jessica prepared is called a risk register (option b).
In this case, Jessica, the risk manager of a large technology company, prepared a chart to better understand the risks that her company faces. The chart lists all the risks and their related information, including the risk category, the primary responsible party for managing the risk, the maximum possible and maximum probable loss, the untreated risk severity score, and the risk severity score after implementing risk management measures.
A risk register is crucial in identifying the level of exposure a company has to various risks. Exposure is the extent to which a company is vulnerable to a particular risk and can suffer financial or other losses as a result.
In summary, a risk register is an essential tool in risk management that helps identify and prioritize risks and their level of exposure.
By creating a risk register, risk managers like Jessica can take appropriate steps to mitigate or avoid risks and ensure the long-term success and sustainability of their company.
So, the correct option is (b).
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Complete Question:
Jessica is the risk manager of a large technology company. To help better understand the risks that her company faces, Jessica prepared a chart listing all of the risks along with pertinent information about each risk. The chart shows the risk category, who is primarily responsible for the risk, the maximum possible and maximum probable loss, the risk severity score untreated and the risk severity score after risk management measures are applied. The chart Jessica prepared is called a
A) risk management information system.
B) risk register.
C) risk management matrix.
D) risk map.
frank and two other machinists want to form a bargaining unit at nelson manufacturing. what is the first step frank and his coworkers need to take? group of answer choices becoming certified campaigning for election petitioning for election collecting authorization card signatures
The proper response, that is, is to collect signatures from authorization cards. (a). The initial action that Frank and his colleagues must take is to obtain the authorization cards' signature.
A person who has been granted permission to sign papers on behalf of the authorising company is referred to as an authorised signatory or signer. The document must be signed by both sides. As a result, it has judicial significance. Such a letter can be used as evidence in court if and when a legal problem arises. The letter should be signed by the individual receiving care, or by the carer on their behalf.When signing a letter on someone else's account, the Latin phrase per procurationem is abbreviated as pp.
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QUESTION
(a) collecting authorization card signatures
(b)campaigning for election
(c) becoming certified
d) petitioning for election
on january 1, a company issues bonds dated january 1 with a par value of $400,000. the bonds mature in 5 years. the contract rate is 7%, and interest is paid semiannually on june 30 and december 31. the market rate is 8% and the bonds are sold for $383,793. the journal entry to record the first interest payment using straight-line amortization is: select one: a. debit interest payable $14,000.00; credit cash $14,000.00. b. debit interest expense $14,000.00; credit cash $14,000.00. c. debit interest expense $15,620.70; credit discount on bonds payable $1,620.70; credit cash $14,000.00. d. debit interest expense $12,379.30; debit discount on bonds payable $1,620.70; credit cash $14,000.00. e. debit interest expense $15,620.70; credit premium on bonds payable $1,620.70; credit cash $14,000.00.
The journal entry to record the first interest payment using straight-line amortization is debit interest expense $12,379.30; debit discount on bonds payable $1,620.70; credit cash $14,000.00. Thus, option (d) is correct.
The first interest payment will be made after six months, or half a year, and will be computed using the straight-line technique of amortization. The entire bond reduction is $400,000 - $383,793 = $16,207. The amortized reduction per month is $16,207 / 10 = $1,620.70.
The following journal entry should be made to document the first interest payment using the straight-line technique of amortization:
Interest expense of $12,379.30 ($400,000 x 7% x 6/12)
Debit: $1,620.70 Discount on Bonds Payable
Credit: $14,000.00 in cash
The interest cost is determined by multiplying the bond's carrying value ($400,000 - $16,207) by the contract rate of 7%, then by 6/12 to account for the 6 months since the bonds were released. The amortization of the bond discount is deducted from the discount on bonds due. The interest amount is applied to the cash account.
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rather than looking for an existing opportunity, entrepreneurs search for work. question 4 options: true false
Rather than looking for an existing opportunity, entrepreneurs search for work. This statement is false.
What is an entrepreneur?An entrepreneur is a person who is self-employed and has started their own company. Entrepreneurs are usually motivated by the prospect of creating something new and solving problems that others have failed to address.
Entrepreneurs, on the other hand, are always on the lookout for new business opportunities and ways to expand their companies.
Entrepreneurial successEntrepreneurship can be difficult, and the majority of new businesses fail within the first few years of operation. However, those who succeed as entrepreneurs have a few things in common.
Successful entrepreneurs are typically passionate about their work, have a strong understanding of their market and target audience, and are willing to work tirelessly to achieve their objectives.
They are resourceful, adaptable, and capable of identifying and seizing opportunities that others have overlooked.
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Answer:
False, they look for opportunities. I struggled to find the answer too in the lesson. You can find it in Lesson 4 of the Culinary Business and Entrepreneurship unit.
Explanation:
" Rather than looking for work, entrepreneurs search for existing opportunity. Part of this effort comes from researching the environment—what’s hit big, what hasn’t—and identifying places where a void needs to be “filled” by something new. "
according to your text, what step in deciding how to position a product should be done on a continual basis since consumer tastes change for almost every product? multiple choice
Monitoring the positioning strategy is the step that should be done on a continual basis since consumer tastes change for almost every product.
Market positioning is a marketing strategy that aims to present products or services in the best possible light for particular customer segments.
The product's value is emphasized through advertising, packaging, and the quality of customer support, among other things, in an attempt to gain an advantage over competing products. Market positioning is critical since it establishes the product's identity and branding.
Following are the steps involved in positioning a product in the market:
Step 1: Identification of Target Market
Step 2: Determining the Category of Competition
Step 3: Identify Unique Selling Proposition (USP)
Step 4: Analyze the Competitors
Step 5: Determining Positioning Strategy
Step 6: Implementation of Positioning Strategy
Step 7: Monitoring the Positioning Strategy
Step 8: Measuring the Effectiveness of the Positioning Strategy
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if aggregate production is greater than aggregate expenditures, group of answer choices there will be an increase in saving. there will be an increase in inventories. firms will then increase production. firms will then increase prices.
If aggregate production is greater than aggregate expenditures, then "there will be an increase in inventories. The correct option is B.
If aggregate production is greater than aggregate expenditures, there will be excess supply. Firms would then hold onto the unsold goods, which would increase inventories. An increase in inventories may have a positive impact on the economy.
It can be argued that an increase in inventories represents positive expectations about the future since producers anticipate that they can sell more goods in the future if the goods are held in inventory. As a result, increased inventories are seen as a harbinger of future economic expansion.
In addition to the increase in inventories, if aggregate production is greater than aggregate expenditures, there may be downward pressure on prices. As a result, producers may attempt to reduce prices to boost sales. Furthermore, there could be a decrease in profits, which could discourage future production.
Option B is the correct answer.
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if the average price of a three-bedroom house was $80,000 in 1950 when the cpi was 15.2, what would it cost in 2017 after correcting for inflation if the cpi in 2017 was 207? group of answer choices $5,874. $1,089,474. $1,216,000. $16,560,000.
If the average price of a three-bedroom house was $80,000 in 1950 when the CPI was 15.2, it would cost in 2017 after correcting for inflation is 1089474 if the CPI in 2017 was 207. So the option B is correct.
The average price of a three-bedroom house was $80,000 in 1950.
The CPI was 15.2.
We have to determine what it would cost in 2017 after correcting for inflation if the CPI in 2017 was 207.
If at the CPI of 15.2 the house worth $80,000.
So, at the CPI of 207 the house worth = 207 × $80,000/15.2
At the CPI of 207 the house worth = 16,560,000/15.2
At the CPI of 207 the house worth = 1089474
Option B is correct choice.
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nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. lately, productivity has been down, and nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. which of the following tools would provide nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data? select one: a. electronic performance monitoring system b. digital dashboard device c. web-based management oversight device d. computerized performance appraisal system
The tool that would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data is an "electronic performance monitoring system". The correct option is A.
An electronic performance monitoring system is a tool used to monitor and record employees' work activities, such as the time they spend on tasks, their productivity, and the accuracy of their work. This system can track keystrokes, mouse movements, and the time spent on each task. It can also generate reports and provide data on employees' performance, which can be used for performance evaluation, training, and feedback.
The reason of using an electronic performance monitoring system, Nick can obtain daily information about each employee's productivity, accuracy, and time spent entering data. This will enable him to identify any issues or inefficiencies in the team's workflow and take corrective actions as necessary. Additionally, the system can help Nick to provide feedback and coaching to his team members to improve their performance and productivity.
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what are some possible measures of maintenance department productivity? what are the pros and cons of using these measures? what steps can be taken to improve maintenance productivity?
There are many possible measures of maintenance department productivity. Some common measures include downtime reduction, preventive maintenance compliance, maintenance cost per unit, and response time.
Downtime reduction: This measures the amount of time that equipment or facilities are out of service due to maintenance activities. A reduction in downtime can indicate improved maintenance productivity.
Preventive maintenance compliance: This measures the percentage of scheduled preventive maintenance tasks that are completed on time. A high level of compliance can indicate effective planning and execution of maintenance activities.
Maintenance cost per unit: This measures the total cost of maintenance activities divided by the number of units produced. A reduction in maintenance cost per unit can indicate improved efficiency and cost-effectiveness of maintenance activities.
Response time: This measures the amount of time it takes for the maintenance department to respond to and resolve maintenance requests. A reduction in response time can indicate improved responsiveness and efficiency of maintenance activities.
Each of these measures has its own pros and cons. For example, downtime reduction and preventive maintenance compliance can provide useful information about the effectiveness of maintenance planning and execution, but may not capture the full range of maintenance activities or costs. Maintenance cost per unit and response time can provide useful information about the efficiency and cost-effectiveness of maintenance activities, but may not capture the full impact of maintenance on equipment reliability or production quality.
To improve maintenance productivity, several steps can be taken. These may include implementing a preventive maintenance program to reduce downtime and improve equipment reliability, using data analysis to identify and address common maintenance issues, providing training and development opportunities for maintenance personnel to improve their skills and knowledge, and implementing performance metrics and incentives to encourage continuous improvement in maintenance productivity.
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which of the following is a poor internal accounting control feature? select one: a. rotation of personnel b. segregation of duties c. combining authorization with custodianship d. internal auditing
The poor internal accounting control feature is combining authorization with custodianship. Here option C is the correct answer.
Combining authorization with custodianship means that the same person who has the authority to approve a transaction is also responsible for executing and recording it. This can create a conflict of interest and increase the risk of fraud or error going undetected.
For example, an employee who is responsible for approving and recording a sale may also have access to the cash or inventory involved in the transaction, which could lead to theft or manipulation of records.
In contrast, rotation of personnel, segregation of duties, and internal auditing are all good internal accounting control features. Rotation of personnel involves periodically switching the job responsibilities of employees to minimize the risk of fraud and collusion.
Segregation of duties involves separating key tasks, such as authorization, custody, and recording of transactions, among different employees to prevent any one person from having too much control over a process. Internal auditing involves regular reviews of a company's financial records and controls to identify potential weaknesses and areas for improvement.
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assume you purchase a new machine for $20,000 that will return a savings of approximately $5,000 per year for an expected five-year period of time. at the end of this five-year period, you can sell the machine for $1,000 (salvage value). the annual depreciation of the machine is $4,000.00 calculate the annual rate of return (arr). a. 5% b. 3.5% c. 20% d. 4%
At the end of this five-year period, you can sell the machine for $1,000 (salvage value). The annual depreciation of the machine is $4,000.00 with an annual rate of return of 6%. Here option E is the correct answer.
In this case, the initial investment is the cost of the machine, which is $20,000. The average annual profit is calculated by taking into account the annual savings that the machine provides, the annual depreciation of the machine, and the salvage value of the machine at the end of its useful life.
The annual savings provided by the machine is $5,000. The annual depreciation of the machine is $4,000. The salvage value of the machine at the end of its useful life is $1,000. Since the machine has a useful life of 5 years, we can divide the salvage value by 5 to get an average annual value.
So, to calculate the average annual profit, we subtract the annual depreciation from the annual savings and add the average annual value of the salvage value: ($5,000 - $4,000) + ($1,000 / 5) = $1,200.
Finally, we can calculate the ARR by dividing the average annual profit by the initial investment and expressing it as a percentage: ($1,200 / $20,000) * 100% = 6%.
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Complete question:
assume you purchase a new machine for $20,000 that will return a savings of approximately $5,000 per year for an expected five-year period of time. at the end of this five-year period, you can sell the machine for $1,000 (salvage value). the annual depreciation of the machine is $4,000.00 calculate the annual rate of return (arr).
a. 5%
b. 3.5%
c. 20%
d. 4%
e. 6%
decker, a 62-year-old single individual, sold his principal residence for the net amount of $500,000 after all selling expenses. decker bought the house 15 years ago and occupied it until it was sold. on the date of sale, the house had a cost basis of $200,000. within six months, decker purchased a new house for $600,000. what amount of gain should decker recognize from the sale of the residence?
Decker should recognize a gain of $50,000 from the sale of his principal residence.
Decker, a 62-year-old single individual, sold his principal residence for a net amount of $500,000 after all selling expenses.
The cost basis of the house was $200,000. To determine the gain on the sale, we need to subtract the cost basis from the net sale price:
Gain = Net Sale Price - Cost Basis
Gain = $500,000 - $200,000
Gain = $300,000
However, Decker is eligible for the capital gains exclusion on the sale of his principal residence.
As a single individual, he can exclude up to $250,000 of the gain from his taxable income, provided he meets the ownership and use tests.
Since Decker owned the house for 15 years and occupied it as his principal residence until it was sold, he meets these requirements.
To calculate the amount of gain Decker should recognize, we need to subtract the exclusion amount from the total gain:
Recognized Gain = Total Gain - Exclusion Amount
Recognized Gain = $300,000 - $250,000
Recognized Gain = $50,000
Since Decker purchased a new house for $600,000 within six months, this does not affect the amount of gain he should recognize from the sale of his previous residence,
as the rules for rolling over gains into a new property were replaced by the capital gains exclusion in 1997.
In conclusion, Decker should recognize a gain of $50,000 from the sale of his principal residence.
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